Prove derivative of an odd function is even and vise versa.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the relationship between the derivatives of odd and even functions. Specifically, it addresses the assertion that if a function \( f(x) \) is odd on the interval \((-L, L)\), then its derivative \( f'(x) \) is even, and conversely, if \( f(x) \) is even, then \( f'(x) \) is odd.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various methods to prove the relationship, including using Fourier series expansion and the limit definition of derivatives. Some suggest using the properties of negation functions to derive the relationships between even and odd functions.

Discussion Status

Several participants have provided insights and approaches, including algebraic manipulations and integration considerations. There is ongoing verification of the proposed methods, with some participants confirming the correctness of each other's reasoning.

Contextual Notes

Participants are also discussing the implications of these properties on integration, questioning whether the integration of odd functions results in even functions and vice versa. The discussion includes references to specific identities related to integrals and their properties.

yungman
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Homework Statement


Prove if f(x) is defined on -L< x < L, and if f(x) is odd function on (-L,L), the f'(x) is even function. and vise versa.


Homework Equations



Using Fourier series expansion, f(x) is odd function on (-L,L) can be represented by Fourier sine series expansion. If f(x) is even function on (-L,L), the it can be represented by cosine series.



The Attempt at a Solution



By series expansion of odd and even function, if f(x) is odd and represented by sine series, then the derivative of the sine series is cosine series and it become an even function. And the reverse is true from even to odd by derivative.


Anyone have a better way of proving this than what I have instead of referring to series expansion?
 
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You could use the limit definition of f'(-x) to show that it is equal to f'(x)
 
Let n(x) = -x so basically just a "negation function". To say that f is even is to say f(x)=f(-x) or in other words f = f \circ n, and to say it's odd is to say -f(x)=f(-x) or in other words -f = f\circ n.

Now use:
(f \circ n)(x)&#039; = f&#039;(n(x)) n&#039;(x) = -f&#039;(-x)
in both cases.
 
rasmhop said:
Let n(x) = -x so basically just a "negation function". To say that f is even is to say f(x)=f(-x) or in other words f = f \circ n, and to say it's odd is to say -f(x)=f(-x) or in other words -f = f\circ n.

Now use:
(f \circ n)(x)&#039; = f&#039;(n(x)) n&#039;(x) = -f&#039;(-x)
in both cases.

Is f\circ n = f(n(x))=f(-x)?
 
Last edited:
Yes it is
 
rasmhop said:
Let n(x) = -x so basically just a "negation function". To say that f is even is to say f(x)=f(-x) or in other words f = f \circ n, and to say it's odd is to say -f(x)=f(-x) or in other words -f = f\circ n.

Now use:
(f \circ n)(x)&#039; = f&#039;(n(x)) n&#039;(x) = -f&#039;(-x)
in both cases.

Let me clarify:

A) Let f(x) be even:

\Rightarrow f(-x)=f(x)

f(-x)= f(n(x)) =f(x)\Rightarrow [f(n(x))]&#039;=f&#039;(x) (1)

[df(n(x))]&#039; =f&#039;(nx)n&#039;(x)=-f&#039;(n(x))=-f&#039;(-x) (2)

(1) and (2)\Rightarrow f&#039;(x)=-f&#039;(-x)

Therefore if f(x) is even, f'(x) is odd.




B) Let f(x) be odd:

\Rightarrow f(-x)=-f(x)

f(-x)= f(n(x)) =-f(x)\Rightarrow [f(n(x))]&#039;=-f&#039;(x) (3)

[df(n(x))]&#039; =f&#039;(nx)n&#039;(x)=-f&#039;(n(x))=-f&#039;(-x) (4)

(3) and (4)\Rightarrow -f&#039;(x)=-f&#039;(-x)

Therefore if f(x) is odd, f'(x) is even



Tell me whether I got this right? Does this apply to integration that integrate of an odd function is an even function plus a constant and vise versa?

Thanks

Alan
 
yungman said:
Tell me whether I got this right?
Yes you did.

Does this apply to integration that integrate of an odd function is an even function plus a constant and vise versa?

Given a function f(x) that is integrable on the appropriate intervals define:
F(x) = \int_0^x f(t) dt
Then you wish to show that f(x) is odd imply F(x) even, and f(x) even imply F(x) odd. In general we have the identity:
\int_a^b f(t) dt = -\int_{-a}^{-b}f(-t)dt
You can use that to write:
F(-x) = \int_0^{-x} f(t)dt = -\int_0^x f(-t) dt
Now you can use f(-t)=f(t) or f(-t)=-f(t) depending on whether you're in the odd or even case to investigate how F(-x) relates to F(x).
 
rasmhop said:
Yes you did.



Given a function f(x) that is integrable on the appropriate intervals define:
F(x) = \int_0^x f(t) dt
Then you wish to show that f(x) is odd imply F(x) even, and f(x) even imply F(x) odd. In general we have the identity:

\int_a^b f(t) dt = -\int_{-a}^{-b}f(-t)dt
You can use that to write:
F(-x) = \int_0^{-x} f(t)dt = -\int_0^x f(-t) dt
Now you can use f(-t)=f(t) or f(-t)=-f(t) depending on whether you're in the odd or even case to investigate how F(-x) relates to F(x).

Thanks for your help, I need to verify again.


Let u=-t, therefore du=-dt. Also the integration of t from -a to -b imply integration of u from a to b.

\Rightarrow -\int_{-a}^{-b}f(-t)dt = \int_{a}^{b}f(u)du = F(b)-F(a)


\int_{a}^{b}f(t)dt = F(b)-F(a)\Rightarrow \int_a^b f(t) dt = -\int_{-a}^{-b}f(-t)dt = F(b)-F(a)

\Rightarrow F(x)=\int_0^x f(t)dt = -\int _0^{-x}f(-t)dt

If f(x) is even, f(-t)=f(t):

\Rightarrow F(x)=\int_0^x f(t)dt = -\int _0^{-x}f(-t)dt = -\int _0^{-x}f(t)dt = -[F(-x)-F(0)] = -F(-x)

This give F(x)=-F(-x) which imply if f(x) is even, F(x) is odd. Therefore integration of an even function gives an odd function.

There other way would be the same that integrate of an odd function give an even function.

Am I correct?
 

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