Prove [itex]f(x)=\sqrt{x^{2}+1}[/itex] is uniformly continuous on the real line.

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the function f(x)=√(x²+1) is uniformly continuous on the real line. The discussion centers around the application of the Lipschitz condition and the Mean Value Theorem in establishing uniform continuity.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the bounded derivative of the function and its relationship to Lipschitz continuity. Some suggest using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) more generally, while others question the appropriateness of working within finite intervals.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the proof structure and clarifying the use of the MVT. There is acknowledgment of the Lipschitz condition being satisfied, but no consensus on the best approach to formalize the proof for uniform continuity across the entire real line.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about applying the MVT in a broader context, indicating a need for clarity on assumptions regarding the function's behavior over the entire real line.

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Homework Statement



Prove f(x)=\sqrt{x^{2}+1} is uniformly continuous on the real line.

Homework Equations



Lipschitz Condition: If there is a constant M such that |f(p) - f(q)| \leq M |p-q| for all p,q \in D, then f obeys the Lipschitz condition.

Mean Value Theorem: Let f be continuous on [a,b] and let f'(x) exist for all x \in (a,b). Then at least one point x_{o} exists in (a,b) such that f(b) - f(a) = f'(x_{o})(b-a).

f'(x) = \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^{2} + 1}} is bounded below by -1 and bounded above by 1.

The Attempt at a Solution



Proof:
f(x)=\sqrt{x^{2}+1} is continuous on [-N,N] and differentiable on (-N,N) for all N. By the Mean Value Theorem, there exists an x_{o} \in (-N,N) such that |f(x)-f(y)| \leq |f'(x_{o})||x-y| for all x,y \in (-N,N).

Since the derivative f'(x_{o}) is bounded above by 1 and below by -1 as x tends to infinity, f'(x) obeys 0 < |f'(x)| < 1 for all x \in (-N,N). Thus 0 < |f(x)-f(y)| \leq 1 \cdot |x-y| for all x,y \in (-N,N).

Since these results hold for a general N, we may choose a larger N and the results will still hold for the larger N, implying the results will hold for the real line as a whole. Letting \delta < \epsilon thus shows that f(x) is uniformly continuous on the real line.

QED
 
Last edited:
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You've got the point, that |f'(x)| is bounded by one. So the function is Lipschitz which implies absolutely continuous. If you really want an epsilon-delta proof, go back the the definition of absolutely continuous and use the MVT from there. Working on the interval [-N,N] is not what you want for that.
 
Your general idea is fine, but it could be written much more briefly and clearly.

Lemma: ##|f'(x)| \le 1##
Proof: ##|f'(x)| = \left|\frac x {\sqrt{x^2+1}}\right| < 1## is obvious.

Proof of uniform continuity. Given ##\epsilon > 0##, let ##\delta =\epsilon##. If ##|x-y|< \delta## then by the MVT there is a ##c## between ##x## and ##y## such that ##|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(c)(x-y)|=|f'(c)||x-y| < 1\cdot \delta = \epsilon##.

[Edit] Dang. Dick and I tied to the minute posting answers. That takes a lot of practice. :smile:
 
Last edited:
I was trying to think of a way to express the point without using TeX. You plowed right in and did it. I'll concede priority to you. That takes time.
 
So there's no hangup working on the whole real line from the start due to the derivative being bounded? I was unsure about using the MVT in a more general setting.
 
nasshi said:
So there's no hangup working on the whole real line from the start due to the derivative being bounded? I was unsure about using the MVT in a more general setting.


Why would there be a problem? Like all others correctly pointed out, your Lipschitz

constant is 1 They did all the real work, and I am just bringing up the obvious fact that

follows from their work:

So, if you want, say, |F(p)-F(q)|<ε , what value of δ in |p-q|<δ

guarantees that, given that |F(p)-F(q)|<1.|p-q| ?
 
Thank you everyone for the clarification!
 

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