Prove Maxwell Eqs. Covariant: Wave Eqn & 4th-Vector Pot.

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    Covariant Maxwell
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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the covariance of Maxwell's equations and the wave equation for the fourth-vector potential. Participants explore whether demonstrating the covariance of the wave equation is sufficient to prove the covariance of Maxwell's equations, examining the relationship between these equations within the framework of four-vector formalism.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions if the covariance of the wave equation for the fourth-vector potential is sufficient to prove the covariance of Maxwell's equations.
  • Another participant suggests that one could directly examine Maxwell's equations to establish their covariance.
  • Some participants argue that using fourth-vectors to analyze the equations for the potentials is simpler than examining the equations for the fields.
  • A later reply states that while Maxwell's equations imply the wave equation for the fourth-potential, it is uncertain if the converse holds true, indicating a potential logical distinction between the two.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether the wave equation and Maxwell's equations are logically equivalent, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved regarding the sufficiency of the wave equation's covariance to establish that of Maxwell's equations.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved questions regarding the logical equivalence of the wave equation for the fourth-potential and Maxwell's equations, as well as the implications of their covariance.

martindrech
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Is it enough to see the covariance of the wave equation the fourth-vector potential ([itex]\phi[/itex], [itex]\bar{A}[/itex]) satisfy? I mean, is this enough to prove the covariance of Maxwell equations?

The equation would be [itex]∂_{\mu}[/itex][itex]∂^{\mu}[/itex][itex]A^{\nu}[/itex]=[itex]\frac{4\pi}{c}[/itex] [itex]J^{\nu}[/itex]

[itex][/itex]
 
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Why can't you just look at Maxwell's equations directly to see that they are covariant?

[tex]\partial_{\mu} F^{\nu \rho} + \partial_{\nu} F^{\rho \mu} + \partial^{\rho} F^{\mu \nu} = 0[/tex]

[tex]\nabla_{\mu} F^{\mu \nu} = 4 \pi J^{\nu}[/tex]
 
Simply because is easier to look (using fourth-vectors) at the equations for the potentials instead of the equation for the fields.
 
martindrech said:
Simply because is easier to look (using fourth-vectors) at the equations for the potentials instead of the equation for the fields.

If the two equations are logically equivalent, yes, you could look at either one. But I don't think the wave equation for the 4-potential is logically equivalent to Maxwell's Equations; Maxwell's Equations imply the wave equation, but I'm not sure the converse is true.
 

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