Prove that f is surjective iff f has a right inverse. (Axiom of choice)

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion proves that a function f: A → B is surjective if and only if there exists a right inverse g: B → A such that fog = iB, where iB is the identity function on B. The proof utilizes the Axiom of Choice to establish the existence of the function g by defining a set of pre-images for each element in B. The rigorous argument shows that if f is onto, then g can be constructed to satisfy the right inverse condition, and conversely, if g exists, f must be onto.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of functions and mappings in set theory
  • Familiarity with the Axiom of Choice
  • Knowledge of identity functions and their properties
  • Basic proof techniques in mathematics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of the Axiom of Choice in set theory
  • Explore the concept of right inverses in mathematical functions
  • Learn about the properties of surjective functions
  • Investigate other proofs involving the Axiom of Choice
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, particularly those studying abstract algebra or set theory, as well as educators looking to deepen their understanding of function properties and the Axiom of Choice.

AdrianZ
Messages
318
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Suppose f: A → B is a function. Show that f is surjective if and only if there exists g: B→A such that fog=iB, where i is the identity function.

The Attempt at a Solution


Well, I believe for a rigorous proof we need to use the axiom of choice, but because I have never worked with the axiom of choice before I need you guys to check if my proof is rigorous and correct.
1) Assume that f is onto.
Define the set ∏={f-1[{y}] : y ε B} (ε represents the membership relation). That means ∏ is the set of all pre-images of f restricted to the element y in B. It's obvious that ∏ is a family of sets and because its members are non-empty sets (since f is onto) we could apply the axiom of choice to it.
Axiom of choice tells us that there exists a function h: ∏ → U∏. It's obvious that U∏=A.
Now let's define: g:B → A , g(y)=h(f-1[{y}]). We should show that it's well-defined.
Which means if y=z then g(y)=g(z), but it's obvious, since if y=z then y and z are the same element in B, hence f-1[{y}]=f-1[{z}], since h is a function (AC), h(f-1[{y}])=h(f-1[{z}]) which means g(y)=g(z).
Now we need to prove that g is a right inverse for f.
Well, let's see what fog does to an arbitrary element y in B. by definition, g(y)=h(f-1[{y}]), then fog(y)=f(h(f-1[{y}])). Now let's see what's happening when fog acts on y. first it gives us the set of pre-image of y, then h chooses one element in f-1[{y}], then f acts on it and it's again sent to y! That's it. It proves that fog(y)=y and since y was arbitrary we conclude that fog=iB.

Now, suppose that there exists a function g such that fog(y)=y. We want to show that f is onto. For any y in B, we have: fog(y)=f(g(y))=y; now if we set g(y)=x we clearly see that for any y ε B, there exists x=g(y) such that f(x)=y which proves that f is onto.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Seems ok.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K