Prove that s/t is rational where s and t are rational

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on proving that the quotient of two rational numbers, s and t (with t not equal to zero), is also a rational number. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and proof validation.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a proof that starts with s and t as rational numbers and concludes that s/t is rational by manipulating their representations as fractions.
  • Another participant questions the choice of denominators being 1, suggesting that they should be arbitrary rational numbers instead.
  • A subsequent reply refines the proof by representing s and t as fractions with arbitrary denominators, demonstrating that the product of integers remains an integer, thus concluding that s/t is rational.
  • Another participant suggests a more concise approach by starting the proof with the expression s/t directly, arguing that the additional steps may be unnecessary.
  • A different perspective is introduced, defining the division of s by t in terms of the multiplicative inverse of t, leading to a conclusion that emphasizes the existence of a rational multiplicative inverse for non-zero rationals.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the structure and clarity of the proof, with some suggesting improvements and others providing alternative approaches. No consensus is reached on a single definitive proof method.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions regarding the representation of rational numbers and the necessity of certain steps in the proof remain unresolved. The discussion also highlights the potential for multiple valid approaches to the problem.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in mathematical proofs, particularly in the context of rational numbers and their properties, may find this discussion relevant.

RM86Z
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TL;DR
given the rational numbers s and t, with t != 0, prove that s/t is rational.
Is my proof correct? The steps from hypothesis to conclusion are in order below:

1) given rational numbers s,t with t != 0
2) take s = p/1 and t = q/1 where p,q are integers
3) (p/1)/(q/1) = p/q is rational
4) therefore by substitution s/t is rational
 
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Why are the denominators of s and and t 1? Aren't they arbitrary rational numbers?
 
Ah yes of course thanks for pointing that out - is this better?

1) given rational numbers s,t with t != 0
2) s = a/b, t = c/d for integers a,b,c,d with b,c,d != 0
3) (a/b) / (c/d) = (a/b) * (d/c) = ad / bc is a rational number as ad and bc are integers (product of integers is an integer)
4) s = a/b and 1/t = d/c and so by substitution,
5) s/t is a rational number
 
A slight improvement:
Start 3) with s/t = ... and the proof is done. Line 4) is not needed and what it says is distracting.
 
Awesome thank you
 
RM86Z said:
Awesome thank you
Here's an alternative approach. First, we ask what is meant by ##\frac s t## in the first place? The most logical answer is that $$\frac s t \equiv st^{-1}$$ where ##t^{-1}## is the rational such that ##tt^{-1} = 1##. And, we see that if ##t = \frac c d##, then ##t^{-1} = \frac d c##. And then $$\frac s t = st^{-1} = \frac{ad}{bc}$$ is rational.

This means that showing that ##\frac s t## is rational is equivalent to showing that every non-zero rational has a rational multiplicative inverse,
 
Nice one thank you PeroK
 

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