Prove that this function is nonnegative

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the function f(x) = (1/2)x^2 - xcos(x) + sin(x) is positive for all x ≠ 0. Participants establish that the derivative f'(x) = x(1 + sin(x)) is non-negative for x > 0, indicating that f(x) is non-decreasing in this interval. The conclusion drawn is that since f(0) = 0 and f'(x) > 0 for x in (0, π], it follows that f(x) > 0 for all x > 0. The symmetry of the function about the y-axis further supports this claim.

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sergey_le
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Homework Statement
Prove that ##x^2##/2>xcosx-sinx for all x≠0
Relevant Equations
-
What I wanted to do was set f(x)=##x^2##/2 - xcosx+sinx And show that f(x)>0.
f'(x)=x(1+sinx)
First I wanted to prove that f(x)<0 in the interval (0,∞)
0≤1+sinx≤2
And thus for all x> 0 f'(x)≥0 and therefore f(x)≥f(0)=0
And it doesn't help me much because I need to f(x)>0
 
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sergey_le said:
Homework Statement:: Prove that ##x^2##/2>xcosx-sinx for all x≠0
Homework Equations:: -

What I wanted to do was set f(x)=##x^2##/2 - xcosx+sinx And show that f(x)>0.
f'(x)=x(1+sinx)
First I wanted to prove that f(x)<0 in the interval (0,∞)
No, you need to prove that f(x) > 0 in that interval, just as you say above.
sergey_le said:
0≤1+sinx≤2
And thus for all x> 0 f'(x)≥0 and therefore f(x)≥f(0)=0
And it doesn't help me much because I need to f(x)>0
You showed that ##f'(x) \ge 0## for ##x \in [0, \infty)##, which means that the graph of f is increasing on this interval. For the other part of this problem, show that ##f'(x) \le 0## for ##x \in (-\infty, 0]##. Do you see how this helps you with the other part of the problem?
 
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Mark44 said:
No, you need to prove that f(x) > 0 in that interval, just as you say above.
You showed that ##f'(x) \ge 0## for ##x \in [0, \infty)##, which means that the graph of f is increasing on this interval. For the other part of this problem, show that ##f'(x) \le 0## for ##x \in (-\infty, 0]##. Do you see how this helps you with the other part of the problem?
No
That's what I intended to do.
But my problem is with the one that can be x∈(0,δ) (when are δ>0) so that f'(x)=0 and then f(0)=f(x)=0 for ∀x∈(0,δ) And then what I have to prove is wrong.
Do you understand my problem?
 
sergey_le said:
No
That's what I intended to do.
But my problem is with the one that can be x∈(0,δ) (when are δ>0) so that f'(x)=0 and then f(0)=f(x)=0 for ∀x∈(0,δ) And then what I have to prove is wrong.
Do you understand my problem?
Try to prove:

If ##f(0)=0## and ##f'(x) > 0## for all ##x > 0## then ##f(x) > 0## for all ##x >0##. Even if ##f'(0)=0##.
 
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Do you know the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus? That is a good way to use properties of the derivative to prove things about the function.
 
PeroK said:
Try to prove:

If ##f(0)=0## and ##f'(x) > 0## for all ##x > 0## then ##f(x) > 0## for all ##x >0##. Even if ##f'(0)=0##.
If that was the case then I had no problem .
But because it is ≤ Then there is the possibility that f'(x)=0.
 
FactChecker said:
Do you know the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus? That is a good way to use properties of the derivative to prove things about the function.
Yes but I can't use it in this course.
In my course it is Calculus 2
 
sergey_le said:
If that was the case then I had no problem .
But because it is ≤ Then there is the possibility that f'(x)=0.
Why did you choose ##\le##?

What I mean is this: suppose you wanted to show that ##z > 0##, say. First you show that ##z \ge 0## and then say you are stuck. So, you need to go back and try to prove that ##z > 0##.
 
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sergey_le said:
Yes but I can't use it in this course.
In my course it is Calculus 2
Are you allowed to use the Mean Value Theorem?
 
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  • #10
PeroK said:
Why did you choose ##\le##?

What I mean is this: suppose you wanted to show that ##z > 0##, say. First you show that ##z \ge 0## and then say you are stuck. So, you need to go back and try to prove that ##z > 0##.
That's exactly my problem. Don't see a reason that z> 0
 
  • #11
FactChecker said:
Are you allowed to use the Mean Value Theorem?
yes
 
  • #12
sergey_le said:
That's exactly my problem. Don't see a reason that z> 0

Okay, let's start at the beginning. You have defined the function:

##f(x) = \frac 1 2 x^2 -x\cos x + \sin x##

You want to show that ##\forall x \ne 0: \ f(x) > 0## Let's start with ##x > 0##

Note that ##f(0) = 0##. First, you have to differentiate ##f(x)##. Can you do that?
 
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  • #13
I think that you can use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it. Remember that the slope of a tangent line is the derivative. Use a proof by contradiction. Assume that there is a point, a, where f(a)<0 and show that the assumption must be wrong.
 
  • #14
FactChecker said:
I think that you can use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it. Remember that the slope of a tangent line is the derivative. Use a proof by contradiction. Assume that there is a point, a, where f(a)<0 and show that the assumption must be wrong.

That almost works, except it must be shown that ##f(x) > 0##.
 
  • #15
FactChecker said:
I think that you can use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it. Remember that the slope of a tangent line is the derivative. Use a proof by contradiction. Assume that there is a point, a, where f(a)<0 and show that the assumption must be wrong.
If I use contradiction, So I have to assume that f(a)≤0 , And I don't see a reason why that f(a)=0
 
  • #16
PeroK said:
Okay, let's start at the beginning. You have defined the function:

##f(x) = \frac 1 2 x^2 -x\cos x + \sin x##

You want to show that ##\forall x \ne 0: \ f(x) > 0## Let's start with ##x > 0##

Note that ##f(0) = 0##. First, you have to differentiate ##f(x)##. Can you do that?
I can show that f(x)≥0 .
 
  • #17
sergey_le said:
I can show that f(x)≥0 .
I know that. And you're asked to show that ##f(x) > 0##.

Why don't you differentiate the function? We need to analyse the derivative.
 
  • #18
PeroK said:
I know that. And you're asked to show that ##f(x) > 0##.

Why don't you differentiate the function? We need to analyse the derivative.
Also the derivative f'(x)≥0
I don't understand what you want me to do?
How do I show that f'(x)>0 And no ≥
 
  • #19
PeroK said:
First, you have to differentiate f(x)f(x)f(x). Can you do that?
PeroK said:
Why don't you differentiate the function?
The OP did that in post #1, quoted below.

f'(x)=x(1+sinx)
 
  • #20
Mark44 said:
The OP did that in post #1, quoted below.

f'(x)=x(1+sinx)
I'm sorry I don't understand what you want to say
 
  • #21
sergey_le said:
I'm sorry I don't understand what you want to say
@PeroK asked you if you could differentiate the function. He must not have noticed that you showed this in post #1.
 
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  • #22
sergey_le said:
Also the derivative f'(x)≥0
I don't understand what you want me to do?
How do I show that f'(x)>0 And no ≥

When is ##f'(x) = 0##?

What happens when ##f'(x) = 0##?

Analyse the derivative!
 
  • #23
Mark44 said:
The OP did that in post #1, quoted below.

f'(x)=x(1+sinx)

Yes, I did miss that. Nevertheless I did say in post #12 that we should start at the beginning!
 
  • #24
PeroK said:
When is ##f'(x) = 0##?
What happens when ##f'(x) = 0##?
Yes, and @sergey_le, what are the values of f(x) at the points where f'(x) = 0?
 
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  • #25
Mark44 said:
Yes, and @sergey_le, what are the values of f(x) at the points where f'(x) = 0?
nothing special.
Please direct me
 
  • #26
sergey_le said:
nothing special.
Please direct me
This is painful. Things to try:

1) Sketch a graph of the function.

2) Analyse the derivative.

3) Analyse the points where the derivative is zero: local min, max, saddle point?

4) Look at the second derivative ##f''(x)##.

5) Use the fact that ##f## never decreases. If it did ##f'(x)## would be less than zero at some points.

6) What happens for small ##x##?

7) Have you noticed the function is symmetric about the y-axis?

You have to be prepared to do some of the thinking here.
7)
 
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  • #27
sergey_le said:
nothing special.
Please direct me
I already did.
what are the values of f(x) at the points where f'(x) = 0?
You found f'(x) in post #1 -- f'(x) = x(1 + sin(x)).

Are you saying you don't know how to solve the equation x(1 + sin(x)) = 0?
 
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  • #28
Mark44 said:
I already did.

You found f'(x) in post #1 -- f'(x) = x(1 + sin(x)).

Are you saying you don't know how to solve the equation x(1 + sin(x)) = 0?
You mean I have to show that there is no f' axis with x axis?
 
  • #29
sergey_le said:
You mean I have to show that there is no f' axis with x axis?
I have no idea what that means.
I'm asking whether you can solve the equation x(1 + sin(x)) = 0. This is something you should have done in an algebra/trig class.
 
  • #30
Mark44 said:
I have no idea what that means.
I'm asking whether you can solve the equation x(1 + sin(x)) = 0. This is something you should have done in an algebra/trig class.
Yes I know how to solve it
x(1 + sin(x)) = 0 when
x=0 or x=3/2+πk
 

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