Prove that this function is nonnegative

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the function f(x) = x²/2 - x cos(x) + sin(x) is nonnegative for all x ≠ 0. Participants explore the behavior of the function and its derivative to establish conditions under which f(x) > 0.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the derivative f'(x) = x(1 + sin(x)) and its implications for the function's behavior. There is an emphasis on proving that f(x) > 0 rather than merely f(x) ≥ 0. Questions arise about the conditions under which f'(x) could equal zero and how that affects the function's values.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing guidance on analyzing the derivative and considering the implications of f'(x) being nonnegative. Some participants suggest using the Mean Value Theorem and exploring the function's symmetry, while others express uncertainty about how to proceed with the proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants note constraints related to the course level, indicating that certain theorems or methods may not be applicable. There is also a focus on understanding the implications of the function's behavior near x = 0 and the necessity of proving strict positivity.

  • #31
sergey_le said:
Yes I know how to solve it
x(1 + sin(x)) = 0 when
x=0 or x=3/2+πk
x = 0, yes, but x=3/2+πk is not a solution.
 
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  • #32
why x=3/2+πk is not a solution?
 
  • #33
sergey_le said:
why x=3/2+πk is not a solution?

I guess you meant
PeroK said:
I guess you meant ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##?
So, @sergey_le, now you know that f'(x) = 0 for x = 0 or for ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.
What are the values of f(x) at these x values?

You also know that f'(x) > 0 for ##x \ne 0## and for ##x \ne \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.

Remember that you're trying to show that f(x) > 0 for x > 0 as part of the problem.
 
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  • #34
PeroK said:
I guess you meant ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##?
Yes I'm sorry.
I don't know why I make such mistakes
 
  • #35
PeroK said:
I guess you meant

So, @sergey_le, now you know that f'(x) = 0 for x = 0 or for ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.
What are the values of f(x) at these x values?

You also know that f'(x) > 0 for ##x \ne 0## and for ##x \ne \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.

Remember that you're trying to show that f(x) > 0 for x > 0 as part of the problem.
Thanks so much I finally realized
 
  • #36
I thought it might be worth adding an outline solution to this.

We need to show that ##f(x) > 0 \ ## when ##x \ne 0##, where ##f(x) = \frac 1 2 x^2 - x\cos x + \sin x##.

Note that ##f## is symmetric about the y-axis (##f(x) = f(-x)##), so it is enough to show that ##f(x) > 0## for ##x > 0##. Note also that ##f(0) = 0##.

##f'(x) = x + x\sin x = x(1 + \sin x)##

Therefore ##f'(x) \ge 0## for ##x > 0##, hence (by the mean value theorem) ##f(x) \ge 0## for ##x > 0##.

Note that ##f'(x) = 0## when ##x = \frac 3 2 \pi + 2n\pi##. In particular, ##f'(x) > 0## for ##x \in (0, \pi]##. Therefore, by the mean value theorem, ##f(x) > 0## for ##x \in (0, \pi]##. And, of course, ##f(\pi) > 0##.

Finally, for ##x > \pi## we have ##f'(x) \ge 0##, hence ##f(x) \ge f(\pi) > 0##; and the result follows.
 
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