Prove that this function is nonnegative

  • Thread starter Thread starter sergey_le
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Function
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the function f(x) = (1/2)x^2 - xcos(x) + sin(x) is positive for all x ≠ 0. Participants establish that the derivative f'(x) = x(1 + sin(x)) is non-negative for x > 0, indicating that f(x) is non-decreasing in this interval. The conclusion drawn is that since f(0) = 0 and f'(x) > 0 for x in (0, π], it follows that f(x) > 0 for all x > 0. The symmetry of the function about the y-axis further supports this claim.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of calculus concepts, specifically derivatives and their implications.
  • Familiarity with the Mean Value Theorem and its application in proving properties of functions.
  • Knowledge of trigonometric functions and their behavior, particularly sin(x) and cos(x).
  • Ability to analyze function symmetry and its effects on function behavior.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Mean Value Theorem and its applications in calculus proofs.
  • Learn about the properties of even and odd functions, particularly in relation to symmetry.
  • Explore the behavior of trigonometric functions and their derivatives in various intervals.
  • Practice proving inequalities involving functions and their derivatives.
USEFUL FOR

Students in calculus courses, particularly those studying derivatives and function behavior, as well as anyone interested in mathematical proofs involving inequalities and trigonometric functions.

  • #31
sergey_le said:
Yes I know how to solve it
x(1 + sin(x)) = 0 when
x=0 or x=3/2+πk
x = 0, yes, but x=3/2+πk is not a solution.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #32
why x=3/2+πk is not a solution?
 
  • #33
sergey_le said:
why x=3/2+πk is not a solution?

I guess you meant
PeroK said:
I guess you meant ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##?
So, @sergey_le, now you know that f'(x) = 0 for x = 0 or for ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.
What are the values of f(x) at these x values?

You also know that f'(x) > 0 for ##x \ne 0## and for ##x \ne \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.

Remember that you're trying to show that f(x) > 0 for x > 0 as part of the problem.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: sergey_le
  • #34
PeroK said:
I guess you meant ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##?
Yes I'm sorry.
I don't know why I make such mistakes
 
  • #35
PeroK said:
I guess you meant

So, @sergey_le, now you know that f'(x) = 0 for x = 0 or for ##x = \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.
What are the values of f(x) at these x values?

You also know that f'(x) > 0 for ##x \ne 0## and for ##x \ne \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2\pi k##.

Remember that you're trying to show that f(x) > 0 for x > 0 as part of the problem.
Thanks so much I finally realized
 
  • #36
I thought it might be worth adding an outline solution to this.

We need to show that ##f(x) > 0 \ ## when ##x \ne 0##, where ##f(x) = \frac 1 2 x^2 - x\cos x + \sin x##.

Note that ##f## is symmetric about the y-axis (##f(x) = f(-x)##), so it is enough to show that ##f(x) > 0## for ##x > 0##. Note also that ##f(0) = 0##.

##f'(x) = x + x\sin x = x(1 + \sin x)##

Therefore ##f'(x) \ge 0## for ##x > 0##, hence (by the mean value theorem) ##f(x) \ge 0## for ##x > 0##.

Note that ##f'(x) = 0## when ##x = \frac 3 2 \pi + 2n\pi##. In particular, ##f'(x) > 0## for ##x \in (0, \pi]##. Therefore, by the mean value theorem, ##f(x) > 0## for ##x \in (0, \pi]##. And, of course, ##f(\pi) > 0##.

Finally, for ##x > \pi## we have ##f'(x) \ge 0##, hence ##f(x) \ge f(\pi) > 0##; and the result follows.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: JD_PM and sergey_le

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K