Proving (1+1/n)^n=(n+1)^n/n! with Induction | Natural Numbers

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equation \(\prod_{k=1}^{n} (1+\frac{1}{n})^n = \frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}\) using mathematical induction, specifically for natural numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of the original statement and the steps involved in the induction process. Some participants question the clarity of the notation and whether the original poster's interpretation aligns with standard mathematical expressions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on the original poster's attempts and suggesting clarifications. There are indications of multiple interpretations of the problem, and some participants are exploring alternative approaches to the proof.

Contextual Notes

There are mentions of potential confusion due to notation and the complexity of the expressions involved. Some participants express uncertainty about the steps taken in the original post and suggest revisiting foundational concepts.

Boombaard
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Homework Statement


show with mathematical induction that prod(k=1->n) (1+1/n)^n=(n+1)^n/n!
n element Natural numbers

The Attempt at a Solution



works for n=1,
[tex]\prod_{k=1}^{n+1}\left(1+\frac{1}{k+1}\right)^{k+1}[/tex] should become [tex]\frac{(n+2)^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
[tex]= (1+(n+1)^{-1})*((1+(n+1)^{-1})^n)*\frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{(n+1)^n}{n!})*(1+(n+1)^{-1})(1+(n+1)^{-n})[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}*(1+(n+1)^n+(n+1)^{-1}+(n+1)^{-n+1}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}+\frac{1}{n!}+\frac{(n+1)^n}{(n+1)!}+\frac{(n+1)^n}{(n+1)^{n+1})n!}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{(n+1)^{n+1}+(n+1)+(n+1)^n+1)}{(n+1)!}[/tex]

only i can't find any way to get to (n+2)^(n+1)/(n+1)! from there :(
can anyone help?
thanks in advance :)ps. Happy New Year to those it applies to:)
 
Last edited:
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I might be missing something, but did you perhaps mean
[tex]\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k = \frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}[/tex]
?
 
I think you'd better take time out to learn latex if you're going to post things like that.

Anyway, you'd better get your n's and k's sorted out. I can't see any immediate interpretation of what yo'uve written that might be true.
 
radou said:
I might be missing something, but did you perhaps mean
[tex]\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k = \frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}[/tex]
?

yeah.. that'd be it.. i tried editing the original a bit to make it more clear what exactly I've tried.. hope i didn't include any errors
 
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Boombaard said:
yeah.. that'd be it

Ok, as you have seen, it holds for n = 1. Next, assume it holds for some n = j. You have to proove it holds for n = j + 1 in order to conclude it holds for every natural number. Now, write down what it looks like when n = j and when n = j + 1. The rest is easy.
 
It's easier to do without induction (just simplify the product), if you're allowed to. Doesn't sound like it.
 
@radou: i know it's supposed to be easy, but the answer still eludes me
@matt: I'm not :)
 
Boombaard said:
@radou: i know it's supposed to be easy, but the answer still eludes me

Well, you have
[tex]\prod_{k=1}^{j+1}\left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k = \prod_{k=1}^j \left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k \cdot \left(1+\frac{1}{j+1}\right)^{j+1}[/tex].
That should illustrate the point, I hope.
 
radou said:
Well, you have
[tex]\prod_{k=1}^{j+1}\left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k = \prod_{k=1}^j \left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k \cdot \left(1+\frac{1}{j+1}\right)^{j+1}[/tex].
That should illustrate the point, I hope.

well, sure.. but, in my (granted, rather limited) experience with these things you then substitute the righthand side of part one with the product bit, and multiply that out, which should yield the n+1 RH part of the equation.. which is what i believe i tried to do in my try as shown above.. which is where i get stuck.
 
  • #10
Then try again. That is all you need to do: mutliply out

[tex]\frac{(j+1)^{j}}{j!} \left(1 +\frac{1}{j+1}\right)^{j+1}[/tex]
 
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  • #11
matt grime said:
Then try again. That is all you need to do: mutliply out

[tex]\frac{(j+1)^{j}}{j!} \left(1 +\frac{1}{j+1}\right)^{j+1}[/tex]

yes, but can you tell me if something has gone wrong in what i did in the OP? because it doesn't seem to add up to anything like the wanted result :S
 
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  • #12
I cannot even decipher the original post - there is too much going on and things seem to vanish between lines, then reappear, like the factorial.

What is another way to write 1+ 1/(j+1)? It really is a one line simplification of the expression in my last post. If your original line of attack doesn't work try a different one.
 
  • #13
ah, yes.. i seem to have become somewhat obtuse after two years of not doing any maths :(

thanks for your patience :)
 

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