ainster31
- 158
- 1
Why is the math in the red box necessary? According to this definition, it isn't:
The discussion revolves around the necessity of proving that a specific function, φ0, is orthogonal to other functions, φn, within a set of real-valued functions. Participants are examining the implications of a definition related to orthogonality and the relevance of particular cases in mathematical proofs.
Participants exhibit disagreement on whether proving (φ0, φn) = 0 is necessary, with some asserting it is required and others suggesting it is not. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the necessity of this proof.
Participants reference a specific definition (12.1.3) related to orthogonality, but there is no consensus on how it applies to the case of φ0. The discussion highlights potential ambiguities in the proof process and the interpretation of mathematical definitions.
ainster31 said:Why is the math in the red box necessary? According to this definition, it isn't:
![]()
…tiny-tim said:hi ainster31!
sorry, i don't understand your question…
the red box proves that (φ0, φn) = 0 (for n ≠ 0)
dextercioby said:m=0 is contained as a particular case for arbitrary m and n. It's no need to make the particular case.
dextercioby said:The proof goes directly by putting cos a = Re (e^ia).
ainster31 said:According to definition 12.1.3, a set of real-valued functions can be proven to be orthogonal if (φm, φn) = 0. So why is it necessary to prove (φ0, φn) = 0?
ainster31 said:So you're saying it was unnecessary?[...]