Proving Convergence of Positive Series Using Ratio Test

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Homework Statement



I'm studying for my final next week (In other words, I'll be asking a lot of questions on here).

One practice problem from the book reads

Prove that, if ∑an and ∑bn are series of positive terms with ∑bn convergent and an/bn --> 0, then ∑an is convergent.

Homework Equations



Whatever

The Attempt at a Solution



So, if an/bn --> 0, then either

bn ---> ∞ or -∞ AND an ---> some finite number;

or bn ----> some finite number AND an ---> 0.

The second option is true given that ∑bn is convergent.


? I don't. Help me with a good way of explaining this.
 
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Take the following with a grain of salt, and perhaps ignore it as I don't have much experience with formalized dealings with series. But I have an intuitive suggestion that may lead to the proof. (Or it could be just down right wrong.)

If [tex]\Sigma b_{n}[/tex] converges, I think that implies [tex]b_{n}[/tex] goes to zero.
(The contrapositive of the theorem that if a sequence does not go to zero, then the series diverges.)
Now if [tex]b_{n}[/tex] goes to zero, then this has some implications for what [tex]\frac{a_{n}}{b_{n}}[/tex] actually means. Namely it would seem that if [tex]b_{n}[/tex] is going to zero, then that would cause the fraction to go to infinity. Since it doesn't, this means [tex]a_{n}[/tex] is forced to behave in a very particular way.

I think there lies the proof.
 
This is simple -- don't think too hard. The condition [tex]a_n/b_n \to 0[/tex] is actually much stronger than you need. You know [tex]\textstyle\sum b_n[/tex] converges, and [tex]a_n/b_n \to 0[/tex] is a relatively strong way of saying that "[tex]a_n[/tex] is eventually smaller than [tex]b_n[/tex]". This should remind you of a particular test for series convergence which you can use to prove that [tex]\textstyle\sum a_n[/tex] converges.