MHB Proving CosX CosY CosZ + SinX SinY SinZ ≤ 1

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The discussion focuses on proving the inequality cosX cosY cosZ + sinX sinY sinZ ≤ 1 for angles X, Y, and Z in the interval (0, π/2). Participants suggest using the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality as a starting point, leading to a series of algebraic manipulations. The proof progresses by establishing bounds on the components and ultimately shows that the sum is less than or equal to 1. There is also a debate about whether the interval should include the endpoints, with suggestions for alternative approaches to simplify the proof. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality in this context.
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If X, Y and Z are in the interval $ (0, \frac{\pi}{2})$, prove that $cosX cosY cosZ+sinXsinYsinZ \leq 1$

Since I see no relevance between X, Y and Z, (but I know I can let X>Y>Z), I don't know how to begin and to be completely candid, I have no clue at all how to do it. (Sweating)

Any hint would be very much welcome.

Thanks.
 
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anemone said:
If X, Y and Z are in the interval $ (0, \frac{\pi}{2})$, prove that $\cos X \cos Y \cos Z+\sin X\sin Y\sin Z \leq 1$
One way would be to start with the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality: $$(\cos X \cos Y) \cos Z+(\sin X\sin Y)\sin Z \leqslant \sqrt{\cos^2X\cos^2Y + \sin^2X\sin^2Y}\sqrt{\cos^2Z+\sin^2Z}.$$ See if you can take it from there.
 
Oh...the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality!
OK. Let's see if I'm doing this right.

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {cos^2Xcos^2Y+sin^2Xsin^2Y} \sqrt {cos^2Z+sin^2Z}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {cos^2Xcos^2Y+sin^2Xsin^2Y} \sqrt {1}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {(cosXcosY)^2+(sinXsinY)^2} \sqrt {1}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}[cos(X+Y)+cos(X-Y)])^2+(\frac{1}{2}[cos(X+Y)-cos(X-Y)])^2} $

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{4}(cos^2(X+Y)+cos^2(X-Y)+2cos(X+Y)cos(X-Y)+cos^2(X+Y)+cos^2(X-Y)-2cos(X+Y)cos(X-Y)}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{4}(2(cos^2(X+Y)+cos^2(X-Y))}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}(cos^2(X+Y)+cos^2(X-Y))}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}(\frac{cos2(X+Y)+1}{2}+\frac{cos2(X-Y)+1}{2})}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}(\frac{cos2(X+Y)+cos2(X-Y)}{2}+1)}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}(\frac{2cos2Xcos2Y}{2}+1)}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}(cos2Xcos2Y+1)}$

But we know that $-1 \leq cos2X\leq1$ and $-1 \leq cos2Y\leq1$ for $0 \leq2X\leq\pi$, so we can state that

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}((1)(1)+1)}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {\frac{1}{2}(2)}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq 1$ (Q.E.D.)

I cheat a bit because we're told that X, Y and Z are in the interval $ (0, \frac{\pi}{2})$ but I take it as they are lie in the interval $ [0, \frac{\pi}{2}]$...
 
I had thought of an easier way.

anemone said:
Oh...the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality!
OK. Let's see if I'm doing this right.

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {cos^2Xcos^2Y+sin^2Xsin^2Y} \sqrt {cos^2Z+sin^2Z}$

$(cosXcosY)cosZ+(sinXsinY)sinZ\leq \sqrt {cos^2Xcos^2Y+sin^2Xsin^2Y}$

Using the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality again,

$\cos^2X\cos^2Y+\sin^2X\sin^2Y\leq\sqrt{\cos^4X+ \sin^4X}\sqrt{\cos^4Y+\sin^4Y}$

$\cos^4X<\cos^2X$

$\sin^4X<\sin^2Y$

Adding, $\cos^4X+\sin^4X<1$

Similarly, $\cos^4Y+\sin^4Y<1$

So, $\cos^2X\cos^2Y+\sin^2X\sin^2Y\leq\sqrt{\cos^4X+ \sin^4X}\sqrt{\cos^4Y+\sin^4Y}<1$

So, $\sqrt{\cos^2X\cos^2Y+\sin^2X\sin^2Y}<1$
 
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Oh..., one need to apply the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality twice to get the problem solved. Thanks, Alexmahone.

I think I've to polish up on the concept of Cauchy–Schwarz inequality.

BTW, do you think the condition that the problem set should read $ (0, \frac{\pi}{2}]$ rather than $ (0, \frac{\pi}{2})$ in order to have $cosX cosY cosZ+sinXsinYsinZ \leq 1$?
 
anemone said:
BTW, do you think the condition that the problem set should read $ (0, \frac{\pi}{2}]$ rather than $ (0, \frac{\pi}{2})$ in order to have $cosX cosY cosZ+sinXsinYsinZ \leq 1$?

It should probably read $\left[0,\ \frac{\pi}{2}\right]$.
 
Actually, there is a much easier way:

$\cos X\cos Y\cos Z<\cos X\cos Y$

$\sin X\sin Y\sin Z<\sin X\sin Y$

Adding,

$\cos X\cos Y\cos Z+\sin X\sin Y\sin Z<\cos X\cos Y+\sin X\sin Y=\cos(X-Y)<1$
 
Alexmahone said:
Actually, there is a much easier way:

$\cos X\cos Y\cos Z<\cos X\cos Y$

$\sin X\sin Y\sin Z<\sin X\sin Y$

Adding,

$\cos X\cos Y\cos Z+\sin X\sin Y\sin Z<\cos X\cos Y+\sin X\sin Y=\cos(X-Y)<1$

Yes. That is a cool and intellectual approach. (Smile)
 
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