Proving/deriving first fundamental theorem of calc

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1MileCrash
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I know this is going to be atrociously bad, but I like to try to prove things.


[itex]\frac{f(x+\Delta x) - f(x)}{ \Delta x} = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x}[/itex]

[itex]=> f(x+\Delta x) - f(x) = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x[/itex]

[itex]=> f(x+\Delta x) = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x + f(x)[/itex]


Now, express x as (x2 + delta x) and define f(x) in the same way we just defined f(x+deltax)

[itex]=> f(x+\Delta x) = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x + \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x + f(x2)[/itex]

We could now express x2 as (x3 + delta x) and define f(x2) in a similar way again.

[itex]=> f(x+\Delta x) = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x + \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x + \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x + f(x3)[/itex]

(I should have subscripts or something similar, because these delta y/delta x's are not all the same thing, but bear with me :)

It is clear that repeating this process over and over becomes a sum of all delta x/ delta y

[itex]=> f(x+\Delta x) = \sum \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \Delta x[/itex]

If we take the limit of both sides as delta x approaches 0, the left side becomes f(x) and the right side becomes the definition of the integral.

[itex]f(x) = \int f'(x) dx[/itex]



I know a lot of things are messed up about it, I think I need to name all my different x's and y's for starters, and I'm sure I said a lot of things that didn't make sense as well, but this is a 10 minute attempt.

Any input is appreciated.
 
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That's quite surprising.
 
Doesn't that demonstration use [itex]\triangle y[/itex] to stand for more than one quantity? Is [itex]\triangle y[/itex] going to be [itex]f(x_2) - f(x_1)[/itex] or is it going to be [itex]f(x_3) - f(x_2)[/itex] etc. ? I think you need subscripts to distinguish the [itex]\triangle y[/itex]'s.

I think your idea amounts to proving the fundamental theorem of calculus from an agrument using the Calculus of Finite Differences.
 
Stephen Tashi said:
Doesn't that demonstration use [itex]\triangle y[/itex] to stand for more than one quantity? Is [itex]\triangle y[/itex] going to be [itex]f(x_2) - f(x_1)[/itex] or is it going to be [itex]f(x_3) - f(x_2)[/itex] etc. ? I think you need subscripts to distinguish the [itex]\triangle y[/itex]'s.

I think your idea amounts to proving the fundamental theorem of calculus from an agrument using the Calculus of Finite Differences.

Yes, as noted those delta y's are all different. I definitely need subscripts, I'll try to rewrite it sometime today.

I don't know what the Calculus of Finite differences is, but I'll check it out. My direction was just based off "the derivative is the quotient of a difference, and the integral is the sum of a product." Knowing that that was inverse-like, I figured that solving for f(x+h) in the derivative definition could give me something integral-like.

The only hurdle is that the derivative is "of a point" while the integral isn't, which I'm guessing is the reason why the sum of all of the delta y/delta x makes an appearance, as opposed to two terms as in the derivative.
 
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A basic idea in the Calculus Of Finite Differences is the relation between summation and differencing.
Let [itex]h[/itex] be a given constant. For a function [itex]G(x)[/itex] , define the function [itex]F[/itex] whose domain will be the integers by [itex]F(k) = G(kn).[/itex].

Define the function [itex]f(k) = \triangle F(k) = F(k+1) - F(k)[/itex]

If we face the problem of doing a summation [itex]S = \sum_{i=1}^n f(n)[/itex] then this amounts to the easy "telescoping" sum:

[itex]S = f(1) + f(2) + .. .+ f(n) = (F(2)-F(1)) + (F(3)-F(2)) + ... +(F(N+1)-F(N))[/itex]
[itex]= F(N+1) - F(1)[/itex]

One can approach doing finite a summation of a function [itex]f[/itex] as a process of seeking an "anti-difference" function for [itex]f[/itex].