Proving Differentiability Using Inequalities

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the differentiability of a function g(x) under certain conditions involving two other functions, f(x) and h(x). The original poster presents inequalities that relate these functions and seeks to establish the existence of a limit that defines differentiability.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the inequalities f(x) ≤ g(x) ≤ h(x) and question the differentiability of f and h. There is an exploration of the squeeze theorem and its relevance to the problem.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights into the relationship between the functions and the conditions needed for differentiability. There is an ongoing exploration of how to articulate the proof and the limits involved, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty regarding whether the functions f and h are differentiable, which affects the validity of the conclusions drawn from the inequalities. The original poster acknowledges confusion in their question formulation, indicating a need for clarity in the assumptions made.

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Suppose
f(a) = g(a) = h(a)
and f(x) <= g(x) <= (x) for all x

Prove g(x) is differentible and that
f'(a) = g'(a) = h'(a).

So.. I need to prove that the following limit exists:

lim h -->0 (g(x+h) - g(x)) / h

but how can i use the fact that f(x) <= g(x) <= (x) for all x?

Thanks
 
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Obviously you're going to have to tell us something about f and h.
 
f(a) = g(a) = h(a)
and f(x) <= g(x) <= h(x) for all x

and

f'(a) = h'(a)
 
Last edited:
Is it possible that f and h are given as differentiable? Otherwise, just take f(x)= g(x)= h(x) to be any non-differentiable functions and the hypotheses are satisfied while the conclusion is not true!
 
you're right

*I seem to have typed the question wrong many times*
sorry.

So, given:

f(a) = g(a) = h(a)
and
f(x) <= g(x) <= h(x) for all x
and
f'(a) = h'(a)

Prove g is differentiable at a, and that g'(a) = g'(a) = h'(a).
 
Do you know the squeeze theorem?
 
oh!
sol instead of just including g(x) in the inequality.. i include more:

f(x) <= g(x) <= h(x)
f(a+h) <= g(a+h) <= h(a+h)
f(a+h) - f(a) <= g(a+h) - f(a) <= h(a+h) - f(a)
f(a+h) - f(a) <= g(a+h) - f(a) <= h(a+h) - f(a)

f'(a) <= g'(a) <= h'(a)

but f'(a) = h'(a)

so (how exactly do i phrase this?)

f'(a) = g'(a) = h'(a)

ooh. that was a good hint/spark =) thanks!
 

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