Proving Equality of Functions with Double Integrals

  • Thread starter Thread starter jj1986
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Functions
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the equality of two continuous functions, f and g, defined on an open subset U of ℝ², given that their double integrals over any rectangle in U are equal. The user correctly applies the fundamental theorem of calculus to derive relationships between the antiderivatives F and G corresponding to f and g, respectively. The conclusion drawn is that if F(x,y) equals G(x,y), then f(x,y) must equal g(x,y). The discussion also suggests a method to show that if f and g are not equal at some point, it leads to a contradiction when integrating over a neighborhood.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of double integrals and their properties
  • Familiarity with the fundamental theorem of calculus
  • Knowledge of continuity in functions
  • Concept of neighborhoods in topology
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of continuous functions in multiple dimensions
  • Learn about the application of the fundamental theorem of calculus in higher dimensions
  • Explore the concept of neighborhoods and limits in real analysis
  • Investigate counterexamples in function equality and integration
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, particularly those studying real analysis, calculus, and anyone interested in understanding the properties of continuous functions and double integrals.

jj1986
Messages
7
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Let U \subset \Re^{2} be open, and f,g: U \rightarrow \Re are continuous, and \int^{b}_{a} ( \int^{d}_{c} f(x,y) dy ) dx = \int^{b}_{a} ( \int^{d}_{c} g(x,y) dy ) dx for every rectangle [a,b] x [c,d] in U. Show that f = g.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Can someone tell me if I'm approaching this problem correctly? I know both integrals exist because f,g are assumed to be continuous. If I apply the fundamental theorem of calculus twice to each integral I get F(b,d) - F(a,d) - F(b,c) + F(a,c) = G(b,d) - G(a,d) - G(b,c) + G(a,c) for every (b,d),(b,c),(a,d),(a,c) in U (so does this imply that F(x,y) = G(x,y)?) where d/dx(d/dy F(x,y)) = f(x,y) and d/dx(d/dy G(x,y) = g(x,y). Because F(x,y) = G(x,y) I can conlude that f(x,y) = g(x,y). Is this correct or am I way off?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
anyone?
 
Suppose there exist (x_0,y_0) at which f and g are not equal:f(x_0,y_0)\ne g(x_0,y_0) Take \epsilon= (1/2)|f(x_0,y_0)- g(x_0,y_0)| and show that there exist some neighborhood of (x_0,y_0) in which |f(x,y)- g(x,y)|> \epsilon. Integrate over a rectangle inside that neighborhood.
 

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K