Proving equation involving limits without derivatives

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The discussion centers on proving the limit equation lim_{h -> 0} (a^h - 1)/h = log(a) and its relation to log_b(a) without using derivatives. Participants suggest that while the squeeze theorem may be applicable, the use of Taylor series inherently involves derivatives, complicating the proof. The consensus is that proving the limit without derivatives is challenging, as derivatives are fundamental to the definitions involved.

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Homework Statement



This is not really a homework or a coursework question. But I got a warning that I should submit my post in this section of the website.. I'm just saying this because I don't know if the answer to my question is at all achievable. And if it is how I should go about trying to solve it. Anyway.. Here is my question:

Can I prove that:
[tex]\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{(\frac{a^h-1}{h})}{(\frac{b^h-1}{h})} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{a^h-1}{b^h-1} = log_ba[/tex]
without using derivatives?

Of course the first equality is trivial But I thought it might be important, that's why it is there.

Homework Equations



Honestly don't know..

Maybe the squeeze theorem?

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried making both sides an exponent of b. Which would looks like:
[tex]b^{log_ba} = b^{\frac{a^h-1}{b^h-1}}[/tex]
which means:
[tex]a = b^{\frac{a^h-1}{b^h-1}}[/tex]
I don't even know if that is the right path though..
 
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V0ODO0CH1LD said:

Homework Statement



This is not really a homework or a coursework question. But I got a warning that I should submit my post in this section of the website.. I'm just saying this because I don't know if the answer to my question is at all achievable. And if it is how I should go about trying to solve it. Anyway.. Here is my question:

Can I prove that:
[tex]\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{(\frac{a^h-1}{h})}{(\frac{b^h-1}{h})} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{a^h-1}{b^h-1} = log_ba[/tex]
without using derivatives?

Of course the first equality is trivial But I thought it might be important, that's why it is there.

Homework Equations



Honestly don't know..

Maybe the squeeze theorem?

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried making both sides an exponent of b. Which would looks like:
[tex]b^{log_ba} = b^{\frac{a^h-1}{b^h-1}}[/tex]
which means:
[tex]a = b^{\frac{a^h-1}{b^h-1}}[/tex]
I don't even know if that is the right path though..

You could use the taylor series of a^h=exp(log(a)*h) and similarly for b. But, of course, the taylor series involves derivatives. I'm not really sure you can even define what a^h even means without using derivatives in some way. I'm not sure you should bother trying.
 
Derivatives are inherent to that, though they could be hidden.


$$\lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{a^h-1}{h}=\log(a)$$

can be derived a number of ways and is analogous to

$$\lim_{h \rightarrow 0} (1+a h)^h=e^a$$
 

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