Proving $\frac{1}{1-z} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (\frac {(z-i)^n}{(1-i)^{n+1}}$

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equality $\frac{1}{1-z} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left(\frac {(z-i)^n}{(1-i)^{n+1}}\right)$, where $z$ is a complex variable. Participants explore different methods to approach this problem, including power series and geometric series expansions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using Taylor series and Binomial expansion as potential methods. There are questions about the implications of $z$ being a complex variable and the conditions for convergence. Some suggest directly finding the power series of $\frac{1}{1-z}$ and inquire about the restrictions on $z$.

Discussion Status

Several participants have offered insights into different approaches, including geometric series expansion and substitutions to simplify the expression. There is acknowledgment of the need for convergence conditions related to the absolute value of $z$.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the complexity of dealing with a complex variable and the necessity of discussing bounds on $|z|$ for convergence of the series.

Gale
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[tex]\frac {1}{1-z} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (\frac {(z-i)^n}{(1-i)^{n+1}}[/tex]
we have to prove that, its our problem. So we start and we get,
[tex]\frac {1}{1-z} = \frac {1}{(1-i)-(z-i)} = \frac {1}{1-i} (\frac {1}{1- \frac {z-i}{1-i}})[/tex]
and then i think we're supposed to go to a power series or something, but i don't know, I'm not sure how to get to there, from here. help?
 
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You can use a Taylor series but it's also equivalent to a Binomial expansion which you should be able to handle.

Here's a third way:

[tex]\frac {1}{1-x} = \frac {1-x+x}{1-x} = 1 + \frac {x}{1-x}[/tex]

and continue to replace the [itex]\frac {1}{1-x}[/itex] with [itex]1 + \frac {x}{1-x}[/itex] on the right side to obtain the desired expansion. Notice that -1 < x < 1 is required for convergence.
 
does it matter then that z is a complex variable? it doesn't seem to make sense to say -1< z <1 if z is complex right? so then?

and anyway, it says to use taylor series...
 
[tex]\frac {1}{1-z} = \frac {1}{1-i} (\frac {1}{1- \frac {z-i}{1-i}})[/tex]

Apply geometric series expansion to the right hand side. QED.
 
Gale said:
does it matter then that z is a complex variable? it doesn't seem to make sense to say -1< z <1 if z is complex right? so then?

Then you'd talk about bounds on |z|

Gale said:
and anyway, it says to use taylor series...

have you tried directly finding the power series of 1/(1-z)? What point do you want to expand it about?
 
Alright, so i guess, [tex]\frac {1}{1-i} (\frac {1}{1- \frac {z-i}{1-i}})= \frac {1}{1-i} (1 + \frac {z-i}{1-i} +({ \frac {z-i}{1-i})^2 + ... + (\frac{z-i}{1-i})^n ) = \frac {1}{1-i} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(\frac {1}{1- \frac {z-i}{1-i}})^n= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (\frac {(z-i)^n}{(1-i)^{n+1}}= \frac {1}{1-z}[/tex]

look about right? I've never done series much before, so i was just a bit lost, but i think that seems right if i use the power series as mentioned.

only question: are there restrictions on z? I'm not really sure how to find them if so.
 
Last edited:
Gale,

That is correct. It would simplify matters to replace [itex]\frac {z-i}{1-i}[/itex] with something like [itex]w[/itex] (call it whatever you want) so that you are expanding [itex]\frac {1}{1-w}[/itex] in your original equation. Then replace [itex]w[/itex] with [itex]\frac {z-i}{1-i}[/itex] when you're done.

And, yes, there is a restriction on z which amounts to the absolute value of [itex]w[/itex] being less than 1.
 

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