Proving: Infinite Group Has Infinite Subgroups

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An infinite group must have an infinite number of subgroups, as demonstrated through the existence of elements with infinite order. By considering an element x in the group G with infinite order, one can generate an infinite subgroup through its iterations, denoted as ⟨x^n⟩. Furthermore, for each prime number p1, a distinct infinite subgroup ⟨x^(p1)⟩ can be formed, leading to an infinite number of such subgroups due to the infinite quantity of prime numbers. The discussion also raises skepticism about the notion that subtracting an infinite number of finite subgroups from an infinite group results in a remaining infinite group. Overall, the argument hinges on the presence of elements of infinite order to establish the existence of infinite subgroups.
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Homework Statement



prove that an infinite group must have an infinite number of subgroups.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



there are two cases to address regarding the order of the subgroups whose quantity is in question,
Case 1: those subgroups, themselves, are either finite or infinite
Case 2: those subgroups, themselves, are strictly finite.

suppose there was a member of G that had infinite order, which we will call x,
\exists x \in G{\rm{ }}\left| x \right| = \infty

Make iterations of that member x iterated,
\left\langle {{x^n}} \right\rangle

That constitutes an infinite subgroup. But there are more such infinite subgroups! There should be one such infinite subgroup every time we consider,
\exists \left\langle {{x^{{p_1}}}} \right\rangle

in which p1 is a prime number. Since there is an infinite number of primes, there is, correspondingly, an infinite number of \left\langle {{x^{{p_1}}}} \right\rangle that exist, and thus an infinite number of distinct subgroups of G, each of which are infinite in order!

This proof would be easy if only I could assume that an infinite group always has some element of infinite order. Then, you could chop up that infinite order into just-as-infinite subgroups (able to be iterated infinity times), and there would be one DISTINCT infinite subgroup per prime integer...of which there are infinite. Distinctness would fall from primeness.
 
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In fact, one author seems to imply that subtracting an infinite number of finite groups from an infinite group gives you a still-infinite group leftover after the aforementioned subtraction from it. I find that dubious!
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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