Proving length of Polygon = length of smooth curve

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equivalence of the length of a polygonal curve and a smooth curve in the context of calculus and geometric analysis. The original poster attempts to explore the mathematical argument for this relationship, particularly focusing on the concept of partitions of an interval and their implications for curve length.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster suggests using integrals to express the lengths of both the polygonal and smooth curves, questioning how to mathematically formalize this idea. They seek confirmation on whether their conceptual approach is valid.

Discussion Status

Some participants have engaged with the original poster's inquiry, with one member requesting clarification of the problem statement in a more accessible format. The discussion appears to be in the early stages, with attempts to refine the problem and explore potential mathematical expressions.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of a specific question (question 7) that is central to the discussion, but the details of this question are not fully provided in the thread. Additionally, the original poster expresses uncertainty about how to articulate their approach mathematically.

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Homework Statement


The problem statement is in the attached picture file and this thread will focus on question 7

Homework Equations


The length of a curve formula given in the problem statement
Take a polygon in R^n as an n-tuple of vectors (a0,...,ak) where we imagine the vectors, ai, as the vertices of the polygon and two successive vertices (ai and ai+1) be connected by the corresponding segment of straight line.
- Thus, the length of a polygon is the sum of the lengths of the line segments: Σk-1i=0 { absval(ai+1-ai)}

The Attempt at a Solution


Basically this question is asking to show that the length of a polygonal curve and a smooth curve are equivalent once we consider an infinite amount of partitions of the interval [a,b]. I'm not exactly sure how to write this mathematically but I would approach the problem as follows:

I would show using the length of the curve formula that the total length of the curve was the sum of the integrals of each equidistant partition i.e., take an integral from (a=)t0 to t1 of γ'(t) then another integral from t1 to t2 all the way to the last integral of tn-1 to tn(=b) and then try to show that the line segment joining the vertices γ(t0) and γ(t1), say, had the same length as the integral of the curve from t0 to t1 and then basically just say as you get closer to ∞ line segments the two lengths converge.

Is this on the right track in terms of concept? Anyone who can help me with the approach or helping to translate it into a mathematical argument would be very much appreciated!
 

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This is almost impossible to read and I doubt that many members will download and resize it. Can you type question 7 in LaTex here instead?
 
Sure I will give it my best try, here goes:

Let γ: [a,b] →ℝn be a smooth curve and a = t0 < t1 < ... < tn = b an equidistant partition of [a,b], i.e., tk+1-tk = 1/n for all k = 0,...,n-1. Consider the open polygon Pn with vertices γ(t0), γ(t1),...,γ(tn) and denote its length by L(P). Show that...

limn→∞ L(P) = L(γ) = ∫AbsVal{γ'(t)}dt where the limits of integration are from a to b
 
Anyone have any ideas on how to proceed?
 
Never mind I figured it out, thanks anyways all!
 

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