Proving Limit of (1+x/n)^n = exp(x)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of the expression (1 + x/n)^n as n approaches infinity, equating it to exp(x). This falls under the subject area of limits and exponential functions in calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster expresses uncertainty about how to begin the proof and seeks clues. Some participants suggest rewriting the limit using logarithmic properties and applying L'Hôpital's rule. Others question the definition of exp(x) and emphasize the need to establish the existence of the limit before proceeding.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different methods and clarifying concepts. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of logarithms and L'Hôpital's rule, but there is no explicit consensus on a single approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the definitions and properties of exponential functions and limits, which may influence their approaches. There is an emphasis on ensuring the limit exists for all x before further exploration.

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Maths project proving lim n-infinity (1+x/n)^n = exp(x)

Homework Statement


project aiming to show that limn→∞(1+x/n)^n = exp(x)


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I have no Idea, is there any chance someone could give me some sort of clue?
 
Last edited:
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here is my attempt so far,
(a+b)^n= (n) a^n + (n) a^n-1 b + (n) a^n-2 b^2 + ... (n) b^n
(0) (1) (2) (n)
 
oh please help me!
I don't know what to do!
should I use (a+b)(a+b)^n-1?
 
Try rewriting your limit as [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\exp\left[\ln\left(\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^{n}\right)\right][/tex].

From there, I believe, you should try to get it into a form where L'Hôpital's rule will apply.

edit :: Yup, I just worked it out and this works.
 
Last edited:
How is exp(x) defined for you?

If it's defined as the inverse of the natural log, then bowma166's method is a good way to approach this problem. But be careful: first you must show that the limit

[tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{x}{n}\right)^n[/tex]

exists, for all x.
 

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