Proving the Countability of Nx{0}

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the set \( \mathbb{N} \times \{0\} \) is countable, with participants exploring the nature of this set as a Cartesian product involving natural numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the straightforwardness of the problem, with one suggesting a bijective function \( f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \times \{0\} \) defined as \( f(x) = (x, 0) \). There is a question about whether stating this function is sufficient for a formal proof.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered guidance on the need for a more formal proof, suggesting that additional lines proving injectivity and surjectivity would enhance the argument. There is recognition of the temptation to simplify the proof due to the perceived obviousness of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenge of balancing the simplicity of the problem with the requirement for a rigorous proof format, indicating a tension between intuitive understanding and formal mathematical standards.

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Homework Statement


Proove that Nx{0} is countable. x stand for a product i.e. like the cartesian product NxN

Homework Equations


N is countable.

The Attempt at a Solution


This is so obvious since Nx{0} is just (1,0),(2,0) etc. But how do you write a proof formally?
 
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aaaa202 said:

Homework Statement


Proove that Nx{0} is countable. x stand for a product i.e. like the cartesian product NxN


Homework Equations


N is countable.


The Attempt at a Solution


This is so obvious since Nx{0} is just (1,0),(2,0) etc. But how do you write a proof formally?

Show there is a 1-1 correspondence between Nx{0} and N. Write an explicit bijection. Yes, it is easy.
 
So I can define the map:
f: N->Nx{0}
f(x)=(x,0)
and state that this is clearly bijective as a proof?
 
aaaa202 said:
So I can define the map:
f: N->Nx{0}
f(x)=(x,0)
and state that this is clearly bijective as a proof?
I suggest writing the extra few lines to prove injectivity and surjectivity instead of writing "clearly." The problem statement itself seems so obvious that it's tempting to write "clearly" as a one-word proof, but clearly that isn't the intent.
 

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