Proving countable ordinal embeds in R

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves demonstrating that for any countable ordinal q, there exists a countable subset A of the real numbers, specifically within the rationals, such that the ordered set (A, <) is isomorphic to (q, ∈). The discussion centers around concepts of countability, order preservation, and the properties of ordinals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of countability and the need for an order-preserving mapping. There are considerations of using permutation groups and transfinite induction, as well as the structure of countable ordinals.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various approaches being explored. Some participants are questioning the notation and the requirements for order preservation, while others suggest using specific mathematical structures to address the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the challenge posed by the requirement for an order-preserving mapping, particularly in relation to the properties of finite versus infinite sets. The discussion also touches on the use of intervals in the real numbers.

cragar
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Homework Statement


show that if q is any countable ordinal, then there is a countable set A ⊆ R (in fact we can require A ⊆ Q), so that (A, <) ∼= (q, ∈).

The Attempt at a Solution


since q is a countable ordinal this implies that it has a mapping to the naturals.
to me this seems strong enough. and its also well ordered.
 
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It's hard to tell from the notation you've used, but I suspect the question is asking you to prove there is an order-preserving mapping.
From countability of q you can get a bijection to the naturals, but in most cases it won't be order preserving.
 
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in order to preserve order, can we use a permutation group to create a linear order
 
The permutation groups I am familiar with are on finite sets. Unless q is finite - in which case the entire problem becomes trivial - I can't see how a permutation on a finite number of elements would help. I think you will need to use the structure of countable ordinals to prove this.
 
Use transfinite induction and the fact that ##\mathbb{R}## is order isomorphic to any interval ##(a,b)##.
 

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