Proving the Existence of a Real Zero Point for a Function with a Given Interval

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the function f_{n}(x) = x^{5} + nx - 1 has exactly one real zero point within the interval \left(\frac{1}{n+1},\frac{1}{n}\right). The discussion also touches on the convergence of a series related to the zero points.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the Intermediate Value Theorem (IVM) to establish the existence of at least one zero in the interval, while questioning how to demonstrate the uniqueness of the zero. There are inquiries about the monotonicity of the function and how it relates to the behavior of the zeros.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different aspects of the problem. Some guidance has been provided regarding the use of the IVM and the properties of polynomials, but there is no explicit consensus on the method to prove the uniqueness of the zero.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the need to clarify arguments and assumptions regarding the function's behavior, particularly concerning its monotonicity and continuity.

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Homework Statement


Show that this function f_{n}(x)= x^{5}+nx-1
has exactly one real zero point and it is in the interval
\left(\frac{1}{n+1},\frac{1}{n}\right)

Homework Equations



By calling the zero point a_{n}
decide if the series \sum \left(-1\right)^{n-1} a_{n}
converges absolutly or conditionally ??
For which x converge the power series \sum a_{n}x^{n}?

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried to substitute the two end points of the interval for the x in the function by (intermediate value theorem)
to show that we have exactly one zero point , is it useful to use this way ??
 
Last edited:
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You need to describe your argument a bit more. You may be able to use the IVM to show there's at least one zero in the interval, but that doesn't mean there's only one zero in the interval or that there aren't zeros outside the interval. You'd still have to show that fn(x) has exactly one zero.
 
vela said:
You need to describe your argument a bit more. You may be able to use the IVM to show there's at least one zero in the interval, but that doesn't mean there's only one zero in the interval or that there aren't zeros outside the interval. You'd still have to show that fn(x) has exactly one zero.

and how can i show that ? can you help me ?
 
If f monotone?
 
lurflurf said:
If f monotone?

Sorry,but i do not know :(
 
Since fn(x) is a polynomial, it's continuous everywhere. If it has more than one zero, it has to cross the x-axis, turn around, and cross the axis again. How can you show that it doesn't turn around?
 
vela said:
Since fn(x) is a polynomial, it's continuous everywhere. If it has more than one zero, it has to cross the x-axis, turn around, and cross the axis again. How can you show that it doesn't turn around?

Yessss, I understod now thanks a lot for your good advices .
I solved it
 

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