jeebs
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So, first off, I'm thinking Lorentz invariant quantities are the same in any inertial frames S and S' regardless of their relative velocity.
I'm thinking I need to show that
\frac{d^3k}{(2\pi)^32E(\vec{k})} = \frac{d^3k'}{(2\pi)^32E'(\vec{k'})} where the primed & unprimed quantities denote different frames.
We also have E(\vec{k}) = \sqrt{\vec{k}^2 + m^2} in the denominator. This isn't Lorentz invariant - the mass term is, but the 3 - momentum \vec{p} = \hbar \vec{k} is not, therefore E is not.
E \neq E' where E'(\vec{k'}) = \sqrt{\vec{k}'^2 + m^2}.
This is making me think that neither E nor d3k are Lorentz invariant, so that when they are used in this fraction, the Lorentz invariance from each one somehow cancels out overall.
Then we come to the hint. I 'm really not sure what to make of this, I mean, I can write \delta(x^2 - x_0^2) = \frac{1}{2|x|}(\delta(x-x_0) + \delta(x+x_0)) with k's and m's: \delta(k^2 - m^2) = \frac{1}{2|k|}(\delta(k-m) + \delta(k+m))
to get an apparently Lorentz invariant expression: \frac{d^4k}{(2\pi)^3}\delta(k^2 - m^2)\theta(k_0) = \frac{d^4k}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{2|k|}(\delta(k-m) + \delta(k+m))\theta(k_0)
but I'm not sure where this gets me, other than guessing that
\delta(k^2 - m^2)\theta(k_0) is also Lorentz invariant seeing as I am told d4k is.
I have no idea how to proceed with this. I don't know what to make of the delta functions either.