Proving the Measure Zero Property of Graphs: A Simplified Approach

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on proving the measure zero property of graphs, starting with a simple case of the function f(x)=x on the interval Q=[0,1]. Participants explore how to demonstrate that the graph of this function has zero measure in R^2 by covering it with rectangles of diminishing area. The conversation emphasizes the importance of uniform continuity, noting that any continuous function on a compact set is uniformly continuous, which aids in generalizing the argument. The need for a clear connection between the rectangles and the graph is highlighted, with suggestions to define rectangles of specific dimensions to facilitate the proof. The aim is to simplify the problem to build understanding before tackling more complex cases.
varygoode
Messages
45
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



2e1g1w6.jpg


Homework Equations



2jepszk.jpg


wjiger.jpg


The Attempt at a Solution



I'm pretty clueless as to what's going on here. If someone can just please lead me in the right direction, I would be quite grateful.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Start with a really simple case. Take Q=[0,1] in R. Take f(x)=x. Then the 'graph' is the diagonal of the square [0,1]x[0,1] in R^2. Can you show that graph has zero measure in R^2? How would you modify that argument to handle the general case? Hint: f is in fact uniformly continuous since the domain is compact.
 
I think I can easily find countably many rectangles to cover the diagonal you are talking about. Something like if I take all the intervals on the line, all of length 1 let's say, then I can cover the interval by n squares with height epsilon/n. Then if I take the union of them, I'll get the volume is less than epsilon in summation.

But how do I generalize this?
 
That's not super clear, but ok. So now instead of f(x)=x, take f(x) to be any continuous function. Do you believe f(x) is uniformly continuous? Can you prove it? If so then just recite the definition of uniform continuity. For every epsilon>0 there exists a delta>0 such that... Given that how many rectangles do you need to cover [0,1]? What's the area of each rectangle? What's the total area? Now let epsilon approach 0.
 
It's uniformly continuous since it is continuous on a compact set, right?

So for every epsilon > 0 there exists delta > 0 s.t. |x-y|< delta implies |f(x) - f(y)| < epsilon. I've got that I think.

But I need something else to connect that and the rectangles. I'm horrible at picturing things, so that won't help. I'm just not sure how to define the rectangles in order to ensure they cover G(f). I simply don't see it.

What is the connection?
 
Draw rectangles that are delta in x by epsilon in y in size. How many do you need to cover the range of x in [0,1]? Multiply that by the area of each one. You are right on the uniform thing.
 
Last edited:
Wait, why are we talking about [0,1]? Damn, I'm completely lost here.

Can you give me this explanation in some mathematically explicit terms? I'm having trouble following what's going on here.
 
I am trying to get you to figure out how to solve an less complicated version of the problem so the notational details don't get in the way of understanding how the proof works. If you can do the problem for the case f:[0,1]->R, I think you can figure out how to generalize it to f:Q->R.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
7K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 47 ·
2
Replies
47
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K