QFT as pilot-wave theory of particle creation and destruction

In summary: In the same way, adding a new dimension to spacetime (i.e., adding a fourth dimension) allows to find a solution to the equation x^2=-1In summary, the paper talks about how to calculate the probability of certain particles of being in certain positions during certain intervals of time in relativistic quantum theory. However, the paper does not state that in Bohmian mechanics you can calculate the probability of certain particles of being in certain positions during certain intervals of time.
  • #1
the_pulp
207
9
There is this paper that someone posted in a thread:

http://arxiv.org/abs/0904.2287

Called "QFT as pilot-wave theory of particle creation and destruction"

Which talks mainly about Bohmian interpretations applied to QFT (the whole paper is in QFT scheme). However, in chapter 3, it talks about calculating probabilities of certain groups of particles of being in certain positions, while I read in several threads here that "particles have no positions" (this paper treats KG theory, phi4 theory, and some more in the end).

What do you think of this paper? Should I trust in it? (especially in chapter 3 and all the facts not directly related to Bohmian interpretations, which I don't care for now) Can, as this paper says, the probability of finding several particles in certain positions during certain intervals of time, be calculated? (I hope the answer is positive because I find hard to understand when someone states that "particles have no positions" when everything that I touch and see has a position!)

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
In Bohmian mechanics particles do have coordinates.
 
  • Like
Likes Demystifier
  • #3
Martinb, In chapter 3 things are independent of the interpretation (In fact, its title is "Interpretation-independent aspects of QFT"). The paper does not states that in Bohmian mechanics you can calculate the probability of certain particles of being in certain positions during certain intervals of time. What the paper states (If I didnt understand wrong) is that in QFT you can calculate the probability of certain particles of being in certain positions during certain intervals of time.
 
  • #4
Sorry, i haven't looked at the paper and was making an assumption, and also I misunderstood your question.
 
  • #5
The_pulp, so far I think that your understanding of that paper is correct.

You may also be interested to see the attachment in
https://www.physicsforums.com/blog.php?b=2240
especially pages 10, 11, 20-24, 33-38.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #6
Ok, I find rewarding your answer and your pdf. But there is a lot of people around here claiming the opposite of what you are saying. A lot of people saying that particles "have no positions". In what sense is people saying that? I would say, particles "have no position" until we measure it and when we measure their position, we will find a value (distributed as the probability distribution that this paper described), and that is the position the particle had in one point of that interval of time (but now does not longer has it because of uncertainty in momentum). Is that what they are trying to say?

Ps: You are Nikolic?
 
  • #7
the_pulp said:
Ok, I find rewarding your answer and your pdf. But there is a lot of people around here claiming the opposite of what you are saying. A lot of people saying that particles "have no positions". In what sense is people saying that? I would say, particles "have no position" until we measure it and when we measure their position, we will find a value (distributed as the probability distribution that this paper described), and that is the position the particle had in one point of that interval of time (but now does not longer has it because of uncertainty in momentum). Is that what they are trying to say?
What people are usually saying (when they know what they are talking about) in the context of relativistic quantum theory is not that particles do not have positions, but that that there is no position OPERATOR. More precisely, they say that the position operator is not Lorentz covariant, so that there is no LORENTZ COVARIANT POSITION OPERATOR (LCPO). And they are not completely wrong; there is no LCPO on the physical Hilbert space (i.e., space of dynamically physical quantum states). However, what I find out in those papers is the following: To have a well defined probability density of particle positions, it is not necessary to have a LCPO on the physical Hilbert space. Instead, it is enough to have LCPO on an extended kinematic Hilbert space, which contains the physical Hilbert space as a subspace. It turns out that LCPO on the extended kinematic Hilbert space exists, which allows to define probability density of particle positions in a Lorentz covariant manner.

If all that sounds too abstract to you, it can be simplified as follows. Other people say that there is no Lorentz invariant probability density on 3-dimensional space. I say: True, but there is Lorentz invariant probability density on 4-dimensional spacetime. Therefore, let us generalize the usual probabilistic interpretation in space to a new probabilistic interpretation in spacetime. In other words, I avoid the impossibility theorems other people use by looking things from a more general perspective where the theorems are no longer valid.

Very very loosely speaking, this can be compared with finding the solution of equation
x^2=-1
In elementary school you have seen the proof that a solution does not exist. But more precise statement is that the solution does not exist on the space of real numbers. If you "add one dimension more" called imaginary axis, then you can find two solutions
x=i and x=-i
The moral is: By extending the framework in which you look for a solution, you can solve problems which previously seemed impossible to solve.

the_pulp said:
Ps: You are Nikolic?
Yes.
 
Last edited:
  • #8
"...they say that the position operator is not Lorentz covariant, so that there is no LORENTZ COVARIANT POSITION OPERATOR (LCPO)..."

Do you know where I can find a demostration about it?

"... it is enough to have LCPO on an extended kinematic Hilbert space, which contains the physical Hilbert space as a subspace..."

Again, do you have a paper about this statement?

"... Ps: You are Nikolic?

Yes. ..."

Wow, its really weird to be talking to the writer of the paper I was reading. Thanks for descending to the mud and clean some of our ignorance (thanks to you and to everyone who comes around here to teach us some physics for free!). Related to this, I find this approach to QFT (the interpretation independent part) much more clearer and direct than the traditional that could be read in, let's say Peskin & Schroeder (particle creation operators). I mean, its really similar to n dimensional QM. Why has not been developed until 2 years ago?
 
  • #9
Demystifier said:
Instead, it is enough to have LCPO on an extended kinematic Hilbert space, which contains the physical Hilbert space as a subspace. It turns out that LCPO on the extended kinematic Hilbert space exists, which allows to define probability density of particle positions in a Lorentz covariant manner.
What exactly is this extended kinematic Hilbert space? Is it something like the rigged Hilbert space?
 
  • #10
the_pulp said:
"...they say that the position operator is not Lorentz covariant, so that there is no LORENTZ COVARIANT POSITION OPERATOR (LCPO)..."

Do you know where I can find a demostration about it?
This is a very old result, which can be seen in the original paper
- T. D. Newton and E. P. Wigner, Rev. Mod. Phys. 21, 400 (1949)
or in an old QFT textbook
- S. S. Schweber, An Introduction to Relativistic Quantum Field Theory (1961)

the_pulp said:
"... it is enough to have LCPO on an extended kinematic Hilbert space, which contains the physical Hilbert space as a subspace..."

Again, do you have a paper about this statement?
Well, I myself discuss it in the paper you mentioned
- http://xxx.lanl.gov/abs/0904.2287
in the paragraph around Eqs. (31)-(41), as well as in
- http://xxx.lanl.gov/abs/0811.1905
first paragraph of Sec. 2, and third paragraph of Sec. 3 (beginning with "Thus we see that eigenstates ...")

the_pulp said:
Related to this, I find this approach to QFT (the interpretation independent part) much more clearer and direct than the traditional that could be read in, let's say Peskin & Schroeder (particle creation operators). I mean, its really similar to n dimensional QM. Why has not been developed until 2 years ago?
To some extent it was developed before, but it is rarely mentioned in the literature because it is less practical in calculating the S-matrix elements. For example, a representation of QFT similar to n-dimensional QM can be found in the textbook by Schweber above. Another good textbook for this stuff is
- P. Teller, An Interpretive Introduction to Quantum Field Theory (1994).
 
  • #11
lugita15 said:
What exactly is this extended kinematic Hilbert space? Is it something like the rigged Hilbert space?
It is not very much like rigged Hilbert space. See my answer in the previous post to the second question by the_pulp.
 

1. What is the pilot-wave theory of particle creation and destruction?

The pilot-wave theory of particle creation and destruction is a theoretical framework within quantum field theory (QFT) that proposes that particles are not created or destroyed, but rather exist as permanent entities. This theory suggests that particles are guided by a "pilot wave" that determines their behavior and interactions.

2. How does the pilot-wave theory differ from traditional QFT?

The main difference between the pilot-wave theory and traditional QFT is the concept of particle creation and destruction. In traditional QFT, particles are seen as excitations of quantum fields that can be created and destroyed through interactions. In the pilot-wave theory, particles are viewed as permanent entities that are guided by a pilot wave and do not undergo creation or destruction.

3. What is the evidence for the pilot-wave theory?

Currently, there is no experimental evidence for the pilot-wave theory. It is still a theoretical framework and has not been fully tested or verified through experiments. However, some researchers argue that the pilot-wave theory can provide a more intuitive and deterministic explanation for quantum phenomena, such as the double-slit experiment.

4. What are the implications of the pilot-wave theory for our understanding of the universe?

If the pilot-wave theory were to be confirmed, it would significantly challenge our current understanding of the universe. It would mean that particles are not fundamentally random and that there is a deterministic underlying mechanism guiding their behavior. This could have implications for other areas of physics, such as the theory of relativity.

5. Is the pilot-wave theory widely accepted by the scientific community?

The pilot-wave theory is still a topic of debate within the scientific community. While some researchers see it as a promising alternative to traditional QFT, others argue that it has not yet been supported by sufficient evidence and goes against the principles of quantum mechanics. Further research and experimentation are needed to fully evaluate the validity of this theory.

Similar threads

  • Quantum Physics
Replies
1
Views
784
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • Quantum Physics
3
Replies
70
Views
5K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
2
Views
916
Replies
10
Views
949
Replies
31
Views
2K
Replies
36
Views
3K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
8
Views
2K
Back
Top