QM - Can We Conclude [A,B]=0 with {|a',b'>}?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between two observables, A and B, in quantum mechanics, specifically whether the commutator [A,B] equals zero given that the simultaneous eigenkets {|a',b'>} form a complete orthonormal set. The original poster presents an argument attempting to prove this conclusion through a contradiction.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the completeness of the eigenkets and the compatibility of the observables. There are attempts to clarify the distinction between the observables and the vectors, as well as discussions on the validity of the proof presented by the original poster.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing feedback on the original argument and suggesting that a direct proof may suffice instead of a proof by contradiction. There is an ongoing clarification regarding the compatibility of observables versus the nature of the vectors involved.

Contextual Notes

Some participants question the assumptions regarding the completeness of the eigenkets and what the implications would be if they did not form a complete orthonormal set. There is also mention of formatting preferences for mathematical expressions.

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Homework Statement


If A and B were observables, and say the simultaneous eigenkets of A and B {|a',b'>} form a complete orthonormal set of base ket. Can we conclude that [A,B]=0?

2. The attempt at a solution

Assume {|a',b'>} is incompatible:

AB|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;=a&#039;b&#039;|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt; <-- skipped several steps
BA|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;=a&#039;b&#039;|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;

AB|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;-BA|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;=0
[AB-BA]|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;=0
[A,B]|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;=0
[A,B]=0

and so we reach a contradiction. Therefore, we conclude that [A,B]=0 assuming the simultaneous eigenkets of A and B {|a&#039;,b&#039;&gt;} form a complete orthonormal set of base ket.

was this thought process correct?
 
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Yes, but the observables are incompatible, not the vectors. And your LaTex would look better by using "\rangle" instead of ">".
 
indigojoker said:
[A,B] |a&#039;,b&#039;\rangle =0...(1)
[A,B]=0.....(2)

It is important to mention that vectors |a&#039;,b&#039; \rangle form a full basis. Therefore any vector in the Hilbert space can be represented as a linear combination of these basis vectors. Therefore, by linearity, your eq. (1) is valid for any vector |\psi \rangle

[A,B] |\psi \rangle =0

Then you can conclude that eq. (2) holds.

Eugene.
 
dextercioby said:
Yes, but the observables are incompatible, not the vectors. And your LaTex would look better by using "\rangle" instead of ">".

Sorry, you mean I should assume that A and B are incompatible and the do the proof by contradiction right?
 
indigojoker said:
Sorry, you mean I should assume that A and B are incompatible and the do the proof by contradiction right?

Nope, compatibility of the observables is no issue here. And you don't need to use any "proof by contradiction". A direct proof is enough. And that's what you did in post #1 in this thread.
 
Then I'm not sure what you mean by this:
dextercioby said:
Yes, but the observables are incompatible, not the vectors.
 
I was correcting your expression: the observables are compatible/incompatible, and not the vectors, since you cannot measure vectors, but only observables.
 
just wonder, how would this change if |a&#039; , b&#039; \rangle did not form a complete orthonormal set of base ket
 

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