QM Problems with wavefunction given in sin and cos.

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a quantum mechanics problem involving a particle in an infinitely deep one-dimensional potential well. The wave function is expressed as a product of sine and cosine functions, and participants are exploring the implications for energy values and expectation values.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the possible energy values and the expected value of energy for the given wave function. There is mention of using trigonometric identities to simplify the wave function. Questions arise regarding the definition of expectation values and the normalization of the wave function.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering hints and clarifications. Some suggest that the wave function represents a linear combination of energy eigenstates, while others are questioning the normalization of the wave function and its implications for the expected value calculation.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the normalization of the wave function, with one participant noting that the integral of the square of the wave function does not equal one, suggesting a need for normalization.

darkar
Messages
187
Reaction score
0
Well, the question goes like this,

A particle of mass m is trapped in an infinitely deep one-dimensional potential well between x = 0 and x = a and at a time t=0,, the wave fuction is given as

Φ(x,t=0)=sin(((πx)/a))cos(((2πx)/a))

(i) What possible values may be found for energy of particle?
(ii) What is the expected (or average) value of the energy of the particle?

Well, we got the hints of using
sinAcosA = (1/2){sin(A+B)+sin(A-B)}

We got (1/2){sin(3*pi*x/a) - sin(pi*x/a)}... but not sure what to do next.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Those sure look like energy eigenstates to me.
 
darkar said:
Well, the question goes like this,

A particle of mass m is trapped in an infinitely deep one-dimensional potential well between x = 0 and x = a and at a time t=0,, the wave fuction is given as

Φ(x,t=0)=sin(((πx)/a))cos(((2πx)/a))

(i) What possible values may be found for energy of particle?
(ii) What is the expected (or average) value of the energy of the particle?

Well, we got the hints of using
sinAcosA = (1/2){sin(A+B)+sin(A-B)}

We got (1/2){sin(3*pi*x/a) - sin(pi*x/a)}... but not sure what to do next.

What is the definition of an expectation value? (Hint: It's involves an integral over the state of the system.)

-Dan
 
The definition of expected value shd be integration of f(x) * psi^2 dx. Am i rite?

Well, the biggest problem is how shd we start, what can u say abt a wave function with (1/2){sin(A+B)+sin(A-B)}?
 
darkar said:
We got (1/2){sin(3*pi*x/a) - sin(pi*x/a)}... but not sure what to do next.

And in DIRECT response to the above comment:

Physics Monkey said:
Those sure look like energy eigenstates to me.

Does that make it a bit more obvious? I didn't bother checking to see if you did your trig right, but if you did, then you have a linear combination of eigenfunctions for the infinite square well problem. That should make it pretty clear how to proceed.
 
Umm, well, there's another thing, if u do integration of square of the given psi^2, u get a/4 instead of 1, shouldn't it be 1?
 
Umm, all rite, got it , i need to normalize the equation.

Thanks for the hints everyone ~
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K