Solving for Φ(k) in Quantum Fourier Transform with ψ(x,0)=e^(-λ*absvalue(x))

  • Thread starter Thread starter chris2020
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Fourier Quantum
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving for Φ(k) in the context of the Quantum Fourier Transform, specifically with the initial wave function ψ(x,0)=e^(-λ*|x|). The integral for Φ(k) is defined as Φ(k)=1/√(2π) * ∫ e^(-λ*|x|) e^(-i*k*x) dx from -∞ to ∞. Participants suggest simplifying the integral by considering the properties of even and odd functions and correcting typographical errors in the formulation. The approach of substituting u=i*k*x is debated, with recommendations to explore real functions for clarity.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Quantum Fourier Transform principles
  • Familiarity with complex integration techniques
  • Knowledge of properties of even and odd functions
  • Proficiency in handling integrals involving exponential functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Fourier Transforms in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the implications of even and odd functions in integrals
  • Explore complex analysis techniques for evaluating integrals
  • Investigate the role of wave functions in quantum systems
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in quantum mechanics, physicists working with Fourier analysis, and anyone involved in theoretical physics or mathematical methods in physics.

chris2020
Messages
8
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Assume ψ(x,0)=e^(-λ*absvalue(x)) for x ± infinity, find Φ(k)

Homework Equations


Φ(k)=1/√(2π)* ∫e(-λ*absvalue(x))e(-i*k*x)dx,-inf, inf[/B]

The Attempt at a Solution

, my thought was Convert the absolute value to ± x depending on what of the number line was being integrated.[/B]

U=i*k*x
du/(i*k)=dx

1/√(2π)*∫e-λ*√(u2/(i*k)2)*e(-u)du,-inf,inf

Now fixing abs value

1/((2π)*(i*k))*∫eλ/(i*k)*ue(-u),du,-inf,o

the integrand for one half of the number line looks like:

E(u*(λ/(ik)-1)

For which i get: after limits are taken for that half of the integral

(1/((λ/ik)-1))

Then similar integral for other half

Is this the right track or am i totally off?

 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hello and welcome to PF!

Your work looks OK. I don't think you need to make the substitution u = ikx. Looks like a typo in one place where you left out the square root for the ##2 \pi## factor.

If you feel more comfortable with working with real functions, write ##e^{-ikx} = \cos (kx) - i \sin (kx)##. You can then check to see if the resulting integrands are even or odd functions over the interval ##-\infty < x < \infty##.
 
yea i was thinking that route also but i forgot about about the even or odd shortcut

Thanks!
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
7K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K