Quantum mechanical integral equation problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the expectation values of position and momentum

for a quantum mechanical particle described by the wave function Ψ(x) = [1/(a1/2.π1/4)].[e-(x-xo)2/2a].[eip0x/h]. The expectation value is derived using the gamma function integral, resulting in =x0/sqrt(a). The momentum expectation value

is calculated similarly, yielding

=p0/sqrt(a), assuming 'h' refers to h-bar. A critical issue noted is the normalization of the wave function, suggesting it should include a factor of a^2 in the exponential term.

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bkmtkm
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Homework Statement


The question is;
for a qunatum mechanical particle,
Ψ(x) = [1/(a1/21/4)].[e-(x-xo)2/2a].[eip0x/h]

in here, x0, p0 and h are constants, so,

Homework Equations


what are the <x>; expetation value, and <P>;expectation value of momentum ?

The Attempt at a Solution

,
[/B]
first we have to simplified to integral, than maybe can be resolvable
 
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bkmtkm said:
first we have to simplified to integral, than maybe can be resolvable
So how can you express the expectation values in integral form?
 
bkmtkm said:
The question is;
for a qunatum mechanical particle,
Ψ(x) = [1/(a1/2.π1/4)].[e-(x-xo)2/2a].[eip0x/h
for the expectation value of x ,use gamma function integral
e.g ∫xnexp(-axm)dx=
(1/m)(Γ(n+1)/n)/a(n+1)/n
 
I did this with change of variable, y=x-x0. gives integral of odd function = 0 plus standard integral (int exp(-y2/a) = sqrt(a)sqrt(pi)), result <x>=x0/sqrt(a). p is a little more tricky, but uses similar integrals, and the imaginary terms eventually cancel out giving <p>=p0/sqrt(a) - assuming that the 'constant h' is actually h bar.
 
Erik 05 said:
I did this with change of variable, y=x-x0. gives integral of odd function = 0 plus standard integral (int exp(-y2/a) = sqrt(a)sqrt(pi)), result <x>=x0/sqrt(a). p is a little more tricky, but uses similar integrals, and the imaginary terms eventually cancel out giving <p>=p0/sqrt(a) - assuming that the 'constant h' is actually h bar.
There is a little problem here, because the original wave function is not correctly normalised. I think that it should be ##a^2## in the first exponential.
 
I wondered that, similar examples I have seen have /2a2, so <x>=x0 and <p>=p0
 

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