Quantum mechanics - normalisation of wavefunction

In summary, the student attempted to solve for the constant in an equation relating the displacement x and the wavefunction's real and imaginary components, but got lost and needs help understanding what he did.
  • #1
tigger88
21
0

Homework Statement


Normalise the wavefunction:
[tex]\Psi[/tex](x) = C exp(-mwx[tex]^{2}[/tex]/(2h))
for the 1-D harmonic oscillator.


Homework Equations



[tex]\int[/tex][tex]\Psi[/tex]*[tex]\Psi[/tex]dx = 1

The Attempt at a Solution


I used the following integral from -inf to inf:
¦C¦^2[tex]\int[/tex]exp(-ax^2)dx = srqt(pi/a) where a = const. >0
where a = mw/h

I solved for C and got C = ((mw/h pi)^(1/4) exp(i[tex]\theta[/tex])

I just want to check if it's the right answer as there's a follow-on question and it looks quite awkward.

Thanks for any help!
 
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  • #2
C = (mw/h pi)^(1/4), it's not clear how you're getting an additional exp(i * theta)
 
  • #3
I got the i*theta bit from some old notes... the lecturer seemed to wap it on the end so that both real and imaginary components (if there are any) of the normalisation factor are included. I don't entirely understand it...

Thanks very much!
 
  • #4
tigger88 said:
I used the following integral from -inf to inf:
¦C¦^2[tex]\int[/tex]exp(-ax^2)dx = srqt(pi/a) where a = const. >0
where a = mw/h

I solved for C and got C = ((mw/h pi)^(1/4) exp(i[tex]\theta[/tex])

Surely you mean

[tex]|C|^2\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ax^2}dx=|C|^2\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}}[/tex]

right?

And shouldn't you have [itex]a=\frac{m\omega}{2\hbar}[/itex], leaving you with [itex]C=\left(\frac{m\omega}{2\hbar \pi}\right)^{1/4}e^{i\theta}[/itex]?

In any case, you should recall that a wavefunction's overall phase factor has no physical effect, and so you are free to choose any particular value of [itex]\theta[/itex] you want. (I'd choose [itex]\theta=0[/itex] for obvious reasons!)
 
  • #5
I thought that when I squared the wavefunction (or multiplied by the complex conjugate, which in this case would be synonymous with squaring) the exponential would do this:
exp(-2mwx^2/(2h)) which would simplify to exp(-mwx^2/h).
Is this not the case?
 
  • #6
You're right tigger88, it does simplify to [tex]e^{-mwx^2/h}[/tex] in the integrand which gives you a value of [tex]C=\left(\frac{m\omega}{\hbar \pi}\right)^{1/4}[/tex]

I'm not even sure you have to put a phase since the wave function is a stationary state (ground state of harmonic oscillator wave function).
 
Last edited:
  • #7
tigger88 said:
I thought that when I squared the wavefunction (or multiplied by the complex conjugate, which in this case would be synonymous with squaring) the exponential would do this:
exp(-2mwx^2/(2h)) which would simplify to exp(-mwx^2/h).
Is this not the case?

Yes, my mistake...oops!:blushing:
 
  • #8
Feldoh said:
I'm not even sure you have a phase since the wave function is a stationary state (ground state of harmonic oscillator wave function).

I'm not sure what you mean by this. An overall phase factor is an unobservable quantity. Choosing any value of [itex]\theta[/itex] will produce exactly the same physics.
 
  • #9
gabbagabbahey said:
I'm not sure what you mean by this. An overall phase factor is an unobservable quantity. Choosing any value of [itex]\theta[/itex] will produce exactly the same physics.

You said it yourself, it doesn't matter, we don't really need to tack it on in this case since it doesn't change anything.
 

1. What is the normalisation of a wavefunction in quantum mechanics?

The normalisation of a wavefunction in quantum mechanics is the process of ensuring that the total probability of finding a particle in any given location is equal to 1. This means that the wavefunction must be properly scaled so that the squared magnitude of the wavefunction, which represents the probability of finding the particle, sums to 1 over all possible positions.

2. Why is normalisation important in quantum mechanics?

Normalisation is important in quantum mechanics because it ensures that the wavefunction accurately describes the probability of finding a particle in a particular location. Without normalisation, the wavefunction may not accurately represent the behavior of particles, leading to incorrect predictions and results.

3. How is the normalisation of a wavefunction calculated?

The normalisation of a wavefunction is calculated by finding the integral of the squared magnitude of the wavefunction over all possible positions. This integral is then set equal to 1, and the resulting equation is solved for a constant that properly scales the wavefunction.

4. What happens if a wavefunction is not normalised?

If a wavefunction is not normalised, it means that the total probability of finding a particle in any given location is not equal to 1. This can lead to incorrect predictions and results in quantum mechanics, as the wavefunction does not accurately represent the behavior of particles.

5. Can the normalisation of a wavefunction change over time?

Yes, the normalisation of a wavefunction can change over time. This is because the wavefunction evolves according to the Schrodinger equation, and as the particle's state changes, the wavefunction must be rescaled to maintain a total probability of 1. However, the squared magnitude of the wavefunction, which represents the probability of finding the particle, will always remain constant.

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