Quantum mechanics - normalisation of wavefunction

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on normalizing the wavefunction for a one-dimensional harmonic oscillator, represented as \(\Psi(x) = C \exp\left(-\frac{m\omega x^{2}}{2\hbar}\right)\). Participants confirm that the normalization constant \(C\) is given by \(C = \left(\frac{m\omega}{\hbar \pi}\right)^{1/4}\) without the need for an additional phase factor \(e^{i\theta}\), as it does not affect the physical properties of the wavefunction. The integral used for normalization is \(|C|^2 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ax^2}dx = |C|^2 \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}}\), where \(a = \frac{m\omega}{\hbar}\). The discussion emphasizes that the overall phase factor is unobservable in this context.

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tigger88
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Homework Statement


Normalise the wavefunction:
\Psi(x) = C exp(-mwx^{2}/(2h))
for the 1-D harmonic oscillator.


Homework Equations



\int\Psi*\Psidx = 1

The Attempt at a Solution


I used the following integral from -inf to inf:
¦C¦^2\intexp(-ax^2)dx = srqt(pi/a) where a = const. >0
where a = mw/h

I solved for C and got C = ((mw/h pi)^(1/4) exp(i\theta)

I just want to check if it's the right answer as there's a follow-on question and it looks quite awkward.

Thanks for any help!
 
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C = (mw/h pi)^(1/4), it's not clear how you're getting an additional exp(i * theta)
 
I got the i*theta bit from some old notes... the lecturer seemed to wap it on the end so that both real and imaginary components (if there are any) of the normalisation factor are included. I don't entirely understand it...

Thanks very much!
 
tigger88 said:
I used the following integral from -inf to inf:
¦C¦^2\intexp(-ax^2)dx = srqt(pi/a) where a = const. >0
where a = mw/h

I solved for C and got C = ((mw/h pi)^(1/4) exp(i\theta)

Surely you mean

|C|^2\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ax^2}dx=|C|^2\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}}

right?

And shouldn't you have a=\frac{m\omega}{2\hbar}, leaving you with C=\left(\frac{m\omega}{2\hbar \pi}\right)^{1/4}e^{i\theta}?

In any case, you should recall that a wavefunction's overall phase factor has no physical effect, and so you are free to choose any particular value of \theta you want. (I'd choose \theta=0 for obvious reasons!)
 
I thought that when I squared the wavefunction (or multiplied by the complex conjugate, which in this case would be synonymous with squaring) the exponential would do this:
exp(-2mwx^2/(2h)) which would simplify to exp(-mwx^2/h).
Is this not the case?
 
You're right tigger88, it does simplify to e^{-mwx^2/h} in the integrand which gives you a value of C=\left(\frac{m\omega}{\hbar \pi}\right)^{1/4}

I'm not even sure you have to put a phase since the wave function is a stationary state (ground state of harmonic oscillator wave function).
 
Last edited:
tigger88 said:
I thought that when I squared the wavefunction (or multiplied by the complex conjugate, which in this case would be synonymous with squaring) the exponential would do this:
exp(-2mwx^2/(2h)) which would simplify to exp(-mwx^2/h).
Is this not the case?

Yes, my mistake...oops!:blushing:
 
Feldoh said:
I'm not even sure you have a phase since the wave function is a stationary state (ground state of harmonic oscillator wave function).

I'm not sure what you mean by this. An overall phase factor is an unobservable quantity. Choosing any value of \theta will produce exactly the same physics.
 
gabbagabbahey said:
I'm not sure what you mean by this. An overall phase factor is an unobservable quantity. Choosing any value of \theta will produce exactly the same physics.

You said it yourself, it doesn't matter, we don't really need to tack it on in this case since it doesn't change anything.
 

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