Quantum Mechanics of wave function and probability rationals

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the wave function W2(x)=(2/L)^(1/2)sin(2pix/L) for a quantum particle in a box, specifically at state n=2 with boundaries at x=0 and x=L. At x=L/2, the wave function evaluates to zero, indicating a zero probability of finding the particle at that exact point. However, the probability of locating the particle in either half of the box remains equal, leading to a paradoxical situation. The resolution lies in understanding that while the wave function amplitude is zero at x=L/2, the probability density over a finite interval does not equate to zero, allowing for non-zero probabilities in adjacent regions.

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  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly wave functions
  • Familiarity with probability density functions in quantum systems
  • Knowledge of the concept of tunneling in quantum mechanics
  • Basic calculus for evaluating integrals of wave functions
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Homework Statement


The wave function in state n=2 is given: W2(x)=(2/L)^(1/2)sin(2pix/L) with boundaries x=0 and x=L
at x=L/2, W2(L/2)=0, which means that the probability of finding the particle in a small region about x=L/2 is zero. Nevertheless, there is equal probability to find the particle in the left half of the box as in the right half.
How is this possible if the particle has no way of passing through the point x=L/2? is this an unresolvable paradox in quantum mechanics?

Homework Equations


P(x)=integral of (w(x))^2 dx


The Attempt at a Solution


I approached this question more in the mathematic path.
here is what I wrote
Probability is defined such that dx cannot equal to 0. therefore, even though W2(L/2)=0, it is only the amplitude at x=L/2 which implies x=0. However, dx cannot be 0 if we are looking for the probability, and therefore a non-zero valued dx would have P(x) yield a value that is close to but never 0. therefore, there is a probability of particle passing through point x=L/2 even though it is likely to be very small.

Can anyone check my answer?
Thanks a lot
 
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If I put a ping-pong ball in a box (length L). Shake it around and then put a divider through a slot (at L/2) to split the box into two halves...
xxxxxx said:
...which means that the probability of finding the particle in a small region about x=L/2 is zero. Nevertheless, there is equal probability to find the particle in the left half of the box as in the right half.
How is this possible if the particle has no way of passing through the point x=L/2?

Granted my example actually prevents the ball from crossing the midpoint whereas in the quantum version you quote this is not impossible. Nonetheless the logic of the question is the same. Whether it can cross a point has nothing to do with the probability of it being found on either side.

Furthermore, in the quantum case the statement "the particle has no way of passing through the point at x=L/2" is not in fact correct. A quantum can cross a point and yet have zero probability of being found at that point (see for example tunneling).
 

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