Quantum mechanics vs. postulates of special relativity

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between quantum mechanics (QM) and the postulates of special relativity, particularly in the context of thought experiments involving observers in different inertial frames. Participants explore whether the existence of quantum mechanics challenges the validity of special relativity, especially when classical and quantum physics are applied to the same phenomena.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that the differing physics used by observers A (classical mechanics) and B (quantum mechanics) implies a fundamental issue with the postulates of relativity.
  • Another participant argues that QM does not conflict with the localization of objects at atomic scales, emphasizing that the uncertainty principle remains valid across all inertial frames.
  • There is a contention that special relativity and quantum mechanics apply universally, and that classical mechanics is a limiting case that does not invalidate the broader frameworks.
  • Some participants propose that Galilean transformations are not sufficient for electromagnetic phenomena, implying that Lorentz transformations are necessary regardless of the scale.
  • One participant notes that both quantum mechanics and general relativity may have limitations and unresolved issues that complicate their integration.
  • Another mentions that special relativity and quantum mechanics have been successfully merged in advanced formulations, such as the Dirac and Klein-Gordon equations.
  • A later reply questions the initial framing of the problem, suggesting that both observers could be using quantum mechanics to describe the same phenomena, depending on the scale of observation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the relationship between classical and quantum mechanics in the context of special relativity. There is no consensus on whether the existence of quantum mechanics invalidates the postulates of special relativity, and multiple competing perspectives remain unresolved.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the complexity of reconciling classical and quantum descriptions of physical phenomena, particularly at different scales. Assumptions about the applicability of classical versus quantum mechanics are debated, and the implications of these assumptions on the validity of relativistic postulates are not fully resolved.

Heirot
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Imagine a thought experiment: A is conducting a classical mechanics experiment (e.g. bouncing a ball on the table) and B is moving relative to A at speed so great that the table of A is contracted to the size of an atom. According to the postulates of special relativity, the physics of A and B must be the same. But A is using classical mechanics while B must use quantum mechanics. So, the sheer existence of quantum mechanics must necessary invalidate the postulates of special relativity. Any opinions?
 
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There is nothing wrong within QM with the location of the ball being localized to a size smaller than an atom. All QM says is that then the momentum of the ball must be uncertain to a degree inversely proportional to that atomic length. Given that (as seen by B) the momentum of the ball must be HUGE for this amount of relativistic contraction then even if the uncertainty of the momentum is a very small percentage of its total momentum, that uncertainty can still be huge and thus consistent with Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.

The key point here is that the uncertainty principle is dictated by the magnitude of the commutator of the momentum and position operators. This commutator is (in standard QM) the identity operator (times hbar) which has norm 1 (times hbar). This is true in all inertial frames via SR since the identity is a scalar w.r.t. Lorentz transformations. So if the uncertainty principle is obeyed in one frame it is in all frames.
 
I was actually implying that there something wrong (incomplete) with the postulates of relativity. The atomic scale in the problem is there just to point out that A i B use "different" physics - classical and quantum, while describing the same phenomena. So the laws of physics cannot be the of the same form in all inertial frames.
 
Heirot said:
I was actually implying that there something wrong (incomplete) with the postulates of relativity. The atomic scale in the problem is there just to point out that A i B use "different" physics - classical and quantum, while describing the same phenomena. So the laws of physics cannot be the of the same form in all inertial frames.

But there is no such contradiction. You are using different physics by assumption. You are not finding a reason to use different physics from the experiment. Quantum mechanics applies to all scales. It is just that measurements above the atomic scale typically don't show much difference between classical and quantum predictions.

Similarly Special Relativity applies at all scales of relative velocity. It is just that at typical velocities we don't see much difference between relativistic and non-relativistic predictions.

So it is not that QM "suddenly kicks in" when you make the ball appear atomic size. It was there all along and quantum issues for the B observer map directly to quantum issues for the A observer. You can't assume facts as seen by the A observer which violate QM and then show that QM is violated by the B observer. You've already assumed a contradiction.

Rather you are via your boosted B observer simply magnifying what we otherwise would consider insignificant quantities (the uncertainty in the momentum and or position of the ball) as seen by the A observer. They are not absent, we rather do not include them when we aren't trying to localize the ball's (center of mass) position and its momentum to the umpteenth decimal place.
 
So, is it fair to say that, when dealing with classical physics, we should stick to the Galileian transformations because Lorentz transformations would (in principle) require QM?
 
Heirot said:
So, is it fair to say that, when dealing with classical physics, we should stick to the Galileian transformations because Lorentz transformations would (in principle) require QM?

I wouldn't say that.
We don't get the electromagnetic waves we see with the Galilean transformations.

In principle, as far as we can tell,
everything requires Quantum Physics (i.e. something like Quantum Mechanics) and everything requires General Relativity (or something akin to it).
It's just that in certain situations, some "limiting approximations" may be appropriate to use [since the full machinery might be too difficult or impossible to apply].

Depending on one's approach to a unified theory of Quantum Physics and Gravitation,
one could argue that
Quantum is not quite right, or General Relativity is not quite right,
or [more likely] both are not quite right.
Each side has its own set of problems... conceptual, computational, etc..., as well as foundational... that make it difficult for them play nicely together in all situations.
 
Also, since the standard model is relativistic it is hard to see how it would pose any conundrum here.
 
Special relativity and QM have been merged for some time. You get the Dirac equation or Klein-Gordon equation instead of the Schrödinger equation.
 
But A is using classical mechanics while B must use quantum mechanics. ial ?[/QUOTE said:
Using clasical /quantum mechnics todescribe what?.
Here is the problem I think where you get divergent.
A and B are both using clasical mechanics to describe each othor.
A and B are both using quantum mecanics to describ the ball.
One last case, if thinking in B to be contracted until it becames size of an atome, then the ball will be the size of electrons, in this case both of them are descrobed quantumly by A.
THankyou
 

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