Hi. I never understood why the momentum wave function ##\phi (p)## is the fourier transform/integral of the real space wave function ##\psi (x)##. Basically, the second pair of formulas here http://quantummechanics.ucsd.edu/ph130a/130_notes/node82.html, and (and the rest of the text, for that matter) makes little sense to me. Is there any intuitive reason behind the formulas?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Could you guys also help me understand the dirac delta normation?

Thanks for any help!

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# Quantum mechanics: wave function (momentum space vs real space)

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