Question about Geodesic Equation Derivation using Lagrangian

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the derivation of the Geodesic equation using the Lagrangian formalism, specifically focusing on the role of the metric tensor in the context of the Lagrangian defined as {L} = {g}_{γβ} \dot{x}^{γ} \dot{x}^{β}. Participants are exploring the implications of treating the metric tensor as a function of coordinates only, rather than as a function of the velocities involved.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning why the partial derivative of the metric tensor {g}_{γβ} with respect to the velocity \dot{x}^{α} is considered to be zero. There is an exploration of the independence of the variables involved in the Lagrangian formalism.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the reasoning behind the independence of the metric tensor from the velocities, suggesting that the metric is defined solely in terms of coordinates. This has led to a better understanding for at least one participant, who feels equipped to continue with their derivation.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing examination of the assumptions regarding the independence of the metric tensor from the velocities, as well as the implications of treating \dot{x} as a separate variable in the context of the Lagrangian approach.

LoadedAnvils
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I'm trying to derive the Geodesic equation, \ddot{x}^{α} + {Γ}^{α}_{βγ} \dot{x}^{β} \dot{x}^{γ} = 0.

However, when I take the Lagrangian to be {L} = {g}_{γβ} \dot{x}^{γ} \dot{x}^{β}, and I'm taking \frac{\partial {L}}{\partial \dot{x}^{α}}, I don't understand why the partial derivative of {g}_{γβ} with respect to \dot{x}^{α} is zero.

I've been looking for a derivation that explained this step but I'm having no luck.

Anyone care to explain?
 
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metric tensor is function of coordinates only,not derivatives of it.So it is zero.
 
LoadedAnvils said:
I'm trying to derive the Geodesic equation, \ddot{x}^{α} + {Γ}^{α}_{βγ} \dot{x}^{β} \dot{x}^{γ} = 0.

However, when I take the Lagrangian to be {L} = {g}_{γβ} \dot{x}^{γ} \dot{x}^{β}, and I'm taking \frac{\partial {L}}{\partial \dot{x}^{α}}, I don't understand why the partial derivative of {g}_{γβ} with respect to \dot{x}^{α} is zero.

I've been looking for a derivation that explained this step but I'm having no luck.

Anyone care to explain?


Although you might think that since \dot{x} is related to x, the derivative should be zero, we actually consider the two to be separate variables. This is because in the lagrangian formalism, you are considering functions, not positions (you are techinically varying over paths). To see how they are independent, consider a function f(t) = x. Since all we know is that it equals x at t, then the first derivative is not fixed (since the derivative is the slope of the tangent, think of how many lines you can draw through a single point). Since we are considering all functions, we don't actually know anything about the first derivative, so we have to treat it as an independent parameter.

In that case, you'll notice that the metric is not written to have explicit dependence on \dot{x}, which is for a reason, because the metric is chosen to not have any dependence on \dot{x}. Physically, this is because the distance between two points doesn't depend on the speed that you are going, so the metric field shouldn't depend on \dot{x}
 
Thank you both. I can now continue with the derivation.
 

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