Deriving the Lorentz transformation substitution

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Nanas
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[PLAIN]http://img710.imageshack.us/img710/4081/capturertt.jpg
[PLAIN]http://img233.imageshack.us/img233/9885/capturejpg2f.jpg
[PLAIN]http://img52.imageshack.us/img52/9140/capturejpg3.jpg
[PLAIN]http://img813.imageshack.us/img813/2919/capturejpg4.jpg
[PLAIN]http://img171.imageshack.us/img171/7805/capturejpg5.jpg

This is From Macquarie

Lecture Notes prepared by
J D Cresser
Department of Physics
Macquarie UniversityMy Question How can I Get This substitution.

Thanks​
 
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? It is simply using the definition of "proportional".
 
This is not my problem

My Problem and question why I we use the inverse square proportional .
 
From Eq 22, A is unitless.

From Eq 36, C/A must have units of 1/vx so that A on the LHS is unitless.

So if C/A is proportional to vx, the constant of proportionality is chosen to have units of 1/v2. The constant of proportionality is written as 1/V2 to make this clear.
 
Thank you.

I understanded it now.