Question about wavenumbers and determining ?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalized wavefunctions for a particle confined to move on a circle, specifically focusing on the variable phi (φ) and its determination in the context of quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to clarify the conditions under which φ should be determined, with one noting that normalization is already satisfied. Others are exploring the expectation value of φ and how to compute it.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants questioning the specific requirements for determining φ and exploring the concept of expectation values. Some guidance has been provided regarding normalization, but further clarification on the expectation value is sought.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be some ambiguity regarding the specific condition under which φ is to be determined, as well as the interpretation of the problem statement. Participants are navigating these uncertainties without a clear resolution yet.

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Homework Statement


The normalized wavefunctions for a particle confined to move on a circle are w(o) = sqrt(1/2pi) e^-imo where m = 0, ±1, ±2, ±3... and o is between 0 and 2pi. Determine o

w = psi
o = the o with the vertical line in the middle

Homework Equations


Not sure what would be relevant in this case. I've tried e^-ix = cos x - i sin x

The Attempt at a Solution


I've tried to use the euler method, but I'm not sure how to solve everything to get the o on one side to solve. The answer according to the teacher is pi, but I have no idea how to get there. How do I do this?
 
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We have

[tex]\psi_m (\phi ) = \frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-im\phi},\qquad\mbox{ where } m=0,\pm 1,\pm 2,\ldots\mbox{ and }0\leq \phi \leq\2\pi[/tex]​

There might be something missing from your question: specifically, we are to determine [tex]\phi[/tex] under what condition? It is not normalization, for the condition that wavefunctions [tex]\psi_m (\phi)[/tex] are normalized is already met. The following proves this:

In this case, the wavefunctions [tex]\psi_m (\phi)[/tex] are normalized if, and only if

[tex]\int_{0}^{2\pi}\left|\psi_m (\phi)\right|^2 d\phi =1.[/tex]​

Indeed this is already so since

[tex]\left|\psi_m (\phi)\right|^2 = \psi_m (\phi)\psi_m^* (\phi) = \left(\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-im\phi}\right)\left(\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{im\phi}\right) =\frac1{2\pi}[/tex]​

where [tex]\psi_m^* (\phi)[/tex] denotes the complex conjugate of [tex]\psi_m (\phi)[/tex] and hence we see that

[tex]\int_{0}^{2\pi}\left|\psi_m (\phi)\right|^2 d\phi =\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac1{2\pi} d\phi=1.[/tex]​

Thus the condition of normaliztion is already met.
 
I think it wants to know the expectation value for phi. The problem has phi like <phi>.
 
So how do you compute the expectation value of [itex]\varphi[/itex] ?

Daniel.
 

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