Mark1991 Messages 18 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Jun 23, 2009 #1 Hi! Why is a in F=m*a equal to a =(d^2 x) / (d t )^2 and not to (d x)^2 / (d t )^2 Mark
D H Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Homework Helper Insights Author Messages 15,524 Reaction score 769 Jun 23, 2009 #2 Notation. The second derivative is [tex]a = \frac {dv}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt}(v) = \frac d {dt} \left( \frac {dx}{dt} \right) = \frac d {dt} \left( \frac {d}{dt} (x)\right)[/tex] Note that if we treated this is a fraction (which it isn't), one could write [tex]a = \frac {dd}{(dt)(dt)}(x) = \frac {d^2}{(dt)^2}(x)[/tex]
Notation. The second derivative is [tex]a = \frac {dv}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt}(v) = \frac d {dt} \left( \frac {dx}{dt} \right) = \frac d {dt} \left( \frac {d}{dt} (x)\right)[/tex] Note that if we treated this is a fraction (which it isn't), one could write [tex]a = \frac {dd}{(dt)(dt)}(x) = \frac {d^2}{(dt)^2}(x)[/tex]