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Homework Help: Question on AP Physics C FRQ 2013. #3

  1. Mar 12, 2016 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    The problem is above. It is number 3.

    The solutions are below:

    2. Relevant equations
    Torque= I * angular acceleration, F=ma

    3. The attempt at a solution

    My questions are the following:

    Why do they in part a of the solution do the expression 2Fa-mg=0?
    I understand that they have Fa acting on the object and mg, but why do they have the left rope's tension equal Fa?

    And then in part B, why do they have the expression Fa + T - Mg = Ma, meaning why do they have Fa != T. And then they substitute the T from the torque equation. Why is doing the problem in this manner necessary, with a separate value for T, which does not equal Fa?
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 12, 2016 #2

    Doc Al

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    Staff: Mentor

    You are told that the disk is at rest (in equilibrium).

    In part B the disk is no longer in equilibrium.
  4. Mar 12, 2016 #3
    Yeah, but when it is at equilibrium, then couldn't I just write it as Fa-mg = 0.

    Maybe it is because the Fa is causing a torque on the right side and we need an equal force to counteract it from the left side to have sum of torques cancel?
  5. Mar 12, 2016 #4

    Doc Al

    User Avatar

    Staff: Mentor

    That assumes the tension on the left segment is zero. And it wouldn't satisfy rotational equilibrium.

  6. Mar 12, 2016 #5
    Yeah that makes sense. Thanks a lot!
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