Questions regarding traveling speed in time and gravity as a force

In summary, the speaker, an engineer with knowledge of physics and calculus, has limited understanding of relativity from university and has gained most of their knowledge through personal research online. They are skeptical about some concepts they have encountered, such as the idea that everything travels at the speed of light, and do not see empirical evidence or logical sense in this claim. They also question the explanation of gravity as the curvature of spacetime and believe it is treated as a spatial dimension, which they do not agree with.
  • #71
PeterDonis said:
Time isn't a surface (or more generally a manifold), so "time curvature" makes no sense. Spacetime is what is curved in the presence of gravitating masses.
But isn’t one observer’s time another observer’s time and space? (Edit — I guess that would make the entire thing spacetime curvature anyway, wouldn’t it?)
 
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  • #72
@ffp

I take it you have no problem with “An object remains in uniform motion unless acted by an outside force,” right?

Well, if spacetime is curved, then “uniform motion” would be along geodesics rather than straight lines, would it not, and those geodesics near Earth lead toward the surface. I can’t really see the logical problem here.
 
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  • #73
Grasshopper said:
But isn’t one observer’s time another observer’s time and space?
[Trying to present this at as simple a level as possible -- because that matches my level of understanding]

Yes. The coordinate delta for the separation between two events may have a non-zero time component and zero spatial components according to one coordinate system. Meanwhile, the coordinate delta based on another coordinate system may have a [larger] time delta along with non-zero spatial deltas.

So the separation might be (4,0,0,0) in one coordinate system and (5,3,0,0) in another.

"Curvature" as the term is used in this context is the intrinsic curvature of a [sub-]space. It has nothing to do with wavy world-lines. It has to do with things like spheres where the surface area does not match up nicely with the radius. Or triangles where the angles do not add to 180 degrees.

The usual introduction to intrinsic curvature is by way of analogy. One considers the surface of a sphere. For instance, the surface of the Earth. And one considers a triangle from north pole, down to the equator, westward about 10,000 kilometers (1/4 of the way around the earth) and then back up to the north pole. Each angle on this triangle is 90 degrees. The sum is 270 degrees, not 180 degrees. This reflects the fact that the surface of the Earth is curved. This is intrinsic curvature. One cannot flatten out the surface of the Earth without wrinkling it or tearing it.

By contrast, we could consider a roll of paper with a triangle drawn on it. The sides of the triangle would appear to be curved. But the angles at the corners would still add to 180 degrees. And if you unrolled the paper, you'd have a nice flat ordinary triangle. That would be extrinsic curvature.

"intrinsic curvature" is a property of the space. [There is a conceptual leap that can be made here. One can consider a two dimensional surface with the same topology as the surface of the Earth without demanding that it be embedded in a three dimensional parent space. But that is a hard leap to make, so I will not belabor that point].

"extrinsic curvature" has to do with the way we represent the space -- how we "embed" it as a sub-space in a flat parent space. Like rolling up a 2 dimensional map to fit into a three dimensional tube.

For two-dimensional surfaces, curvature is easy. You have [locally] saddle shapes with negative curvature or spherical shapes with positive curvature. So one number is enough to specify the [local] curvature of the space. When you get into three or four dimensions, curvature involves more components. We call it a tensor.

For one dimension -- lines, there is no such thing as intrinsic curvature. The thread on a spool has no such notion. Sure, it may be extrinsically wound up on the spool. But intrinsically, there is no difference between a straight thread and a thread on a spool. All a blind bug on the thread can determine is how far he has crawled so far.
 
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  • #74
jbriggs444 said:
[Trying to present this at as simple a level as possible -- because that matches my level of understanding]

Yes. The coordinate delta for the separation between two events may have a non-zero time component and zero spatial components according to one coordinate system. Meanwhile, the coordinate delta based on another coordinate system may have a [larger] time delta along with non-zero spatial deltas.

So the separation might be (4,0,0,0) in one coordinate system and (5,3,0,0) in another.

"Curvature" as the term is used in this context is the intrinsic curvature of a [sub-]space. It has nothing to do with wavy world-lines. It has to do with things like spheres where the surface area does not match up nicely with the radius. Or triangles where the angles do not add to 180 degrees.

The usual introduction to intrinsic curvature is by way of analogy. One considers the surface of a sphere. For instance, the surface of the Earth. And one considers a triangle from north pole, down to the equator, westward about 10,000 kilometers (1/4 of the way around the earth) and then back up to the north pole. Each angle on this triangle is 90 degrees. The sum is 270 degrees, not 180 degrees. This reflects the fact that the surface of the Earth is curved. This is intrinsic curvature. One cannot flatten out the surface of the Earth without wrinkling it or tearing it.

By contrast, we could consider a roll of paper with a triangle drawn on it. The sides of the triangle would appear to be curved. But the angles at the corners would still add to 180 degrees. And if you unrolled the paper, you'd have a nice flat ordinary triangle. That would be extrinsic curvature.

"intrinsic curvature" is a property of the space. [There is a conceptual leap that can be made here. One can consider a two dimensional surface with the same topology as the surface of the Earth without demanding that it be embedded in a three dimensional parent space. But that is a hard leap to make, so I will not belabor that point].

"extrinsic curvature" has to do with the way we represent the space -- how we "embed" it as a sub-space in a flat parent space. Like rolling up a 2 dimensional map to fit into a three dimensional tube.

For two-dimensional surfaces, curvature is easy. You have [locally] saddle shapes with negative curvature or spherical shapes with positive curvature. So one number is enough to specify the [local] curvature of the space. When you get into three or four dimensions, curvature involves more components. We call it a tensor.

For one dimension -- lines, there is no such thing as intrinsic curvature. The thread on a spool has no such notion. Sure, it may be extrinsically wound up on the spool. But intrinsically, there is no difference between a straight thread and a thread on a spool. All a blind bug on the thread can determine is how far he has crawled so far.
Right, that makes sense in terms of the limitations of one dimension. However, what about a two dimensional surface in which an observer is limited to traveling on one dimension. If unit distances for him change in length, is that not an example of curvature or distortion? Or is that something such an observer can never measure?

On the other hand, you could say he just has a weird coordinate system. But, if the two dimensional surface is one such that distance on the surface is not ## z = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2} ## , wouldn’t the 2D surface be curved, and if so, why wouldn’t it affect distance measurement in the one dimension on which he is confined?
 
  • #75
Grasshopper said:
Right, that makes sense in terms of the limitations of one dimension. However, what about a two dimensional surface in which an observer is limited to traveling on one dimension. If unit distances for him change in length, is that not an example of curvature or distortion? Or is that something such an observer can never measure?
A unit distance is a unit distance. It cannot change in length, by definition. If it did change length, how would you know, other than by comparing it to something else?

Grasshopper said:
On the other hand, you could say he just has a weird coordinate system. But, if the two dimensional surface is one such that distance on the surface is not ## z = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2} ## , wouldn’t the 2D surface be curved, and if so, why wouldn’t it affect distance measurement in the one dimension on which he is confined?
It has nothing to do with coordinate systems. Intrinsic curvature exists independently of coordinate systems. If you can trace three straight lines that meet in 90 degree corners, you have curvature regardless of whether you are using lines of latitude and longitude at one angle or at another.

What you could say is that he has a weird "metric". Consider, for instance, a flat map of the Earth using a Mercator projection. The distance between points on this map that you measure with your ruler on the paper will not match the correct distances that you pace out on the surface of the Earth. The shortest path line that you draw on the map with a straight-edge will not match the shortest path great circle that you would follow on the surface of the Earth.

A "metric" is a function that works pretty much like the table of distances that you can find in old maps and atlases. You find a row with your starting city on the left. You find a column with your destination city on the top. You read off the distance between those two cities from the cell where the row and column intersect.

The metric is not the same thing as a coordinate system.

A "coordinate system" for a two dimensional space is a mapping between pairs of coordinate values and points in the space. For a two dimensional space one has coordinates with two values each. For three dimensional space, one has coordinates with three values, etc.

One can think of the metric as giving the distance between a given coordinate pair e.g. between ##(x_1,y_1)## and ##(x_2,y_2)##. Or as giving a distance between the points at those coordinates. The latter choice makes the metric independent of coordinates but makes it more difficult to write down explicitly.

With that said, yes: If the metric is other than ##d=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}##, is still suitably smooth and is more than just a re-scaling then the curvature in the neighborhoods of at least some particular points will be non-zero. [I'm no expert on differential geometry, but I am pretty sure that holds]

If you change the metric and continue to identify a particular pair of points then yes, that changes the distance between those points, by definition. What is your point? And what does that have to do with confining a path to one dimension?
 
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  • #76
@jbriggs444 Yes, I understand the concept of light cones. My point was that it is an abstract mathematical tool. It is not real like an electron. The light cone was used in comparison of the statement that "the time axis is curved" meaning anything more than "time flow in different rates if the axis is curved".

PeterDonis said:
Spacetime being curved is the same kind of thing. Spacetime is a geometric manifold, just like the "space" you are imagining, and the same geometric concepts apply to it.

Fair enough. Then I shall think of spacetime as similar to space but fundamentally related to time. Makes sense, if we can imagine space being curved, spacetime can be curved as well.

PeterDonis said:
I don't see how, since, as I said in post #68 just now, time isn't a surface (or more generally a manifold), so saying it is curved makes no sense.

You hit the spot here. That is exactly my issue here. Time isn't a surface. It isn't spatial. So it can't be curved. I can understand "time being curved" as time flowing in different rates though. What you think?

PeterDonis said:
I have no idea what you're talking about. GR is a theory of gravity. All of the experimental tests of GR involve gravity.

They involve, but they do not prove that an apple fall on Earth because of the curvature of spacetime, right? We just can explain things that we couldn't with Newtonian gravity.

PeterDonis said:
No. It says that gravity being a product of spacetime curvature is an approximation valid in a particular range of circumstances (roughly, when spacetime curvature is small enough that quantum gravity effects can be ignored--which turns out to be a pretty wide range; our current best guess is that quantum gravity effects don't become significant until spacetime curvature reaches the Planck scale, which corresponds to an energy density about 94 orders of magnitude larger than the energy densities in our solar system). This is no different from Newtonian gravity being an approximation to General Relativity valid in a particular range of circumstances (when gravity is weak and all speeds are slow compared to the speed of light).

No. It just means that the scientific community is considering the possibility that GR might not be a fundamental theory. GR will still be a valid approximation within its domain no matter how that comes out, which means that within that domain, GR's explanation of gravity using spacetime curvature will still be valid, since it will still make accurate predictions. Just as the Newtonian model of gravity as a force still works just fine if you're trying to predict the trajectory of a baseball, let's say, here on Earth.

And GR not being a fundamental theory doesn't means that the explanation of why gravity happens is wrong? I know we will still use it, the same way we still use Newton's gravity, but we will know that the sourec of gravity is not the one stated.
The thing is, until GR we didn't know Newtonian gravity didn't worked in some circumstances, then we considered it true. Now we know that GR doesn't work in some circumstances, shouldn't we consider it to be incomplete? Again, not telling that we should throw GR away, just that the conceptual explanations, like why an apple fall down, are still controversial.
Also, wouldn't gravitons be incompatible with GR?

@ersmith About your second quote, It is ok to accept "that's just the way things work" when we have an intuitive perception of things. We accepted Newton's theory of masses attract masses because that's the way things works (even that it might be wrong). We can see an apple falling down.
Now, when someone says that Earth surface is constantly expanding and it stays the same because of spacetime curvature, that's just too much to accept, don't you think?
It might be just me, but I don't like accepting things that aren't obvious/intuitive without a good explanation. That's what I'm trying to get here. A good reason of why spacetime curvature makes the apple fall.

Your example of the apple is like saying "the future of the apple is on the surface of the Earth". I think I'll just have to accept that explanation.

@Grasshopper Yes. The thing i, while spacetime is one thing, we still can differentiate traveling in space and traveling in time. In this case, the traveling in time of a still object in space is affecting the traveling in space. As if we are converting the travel in time into traveling in space because spacetime is curved. While we "know" that for change traveling in time into space a force is required.
 
  • #77
ffp said:
They involve, but they do not prove that an apple fall on Earth because of the curvature of spacetime, right? We just can explain things that we couldn't with Newtonian gravity.
The path of an apple falling to Earth is a geodesic in the Schwarzschild solution to Einstein's field equations. In other words, GR certainly does predict that apples fall to Earth, and with the same acceleration (to within experimental error) as Newton predicted. You may not like the verbal explanations, but the math is clear.

@ersmith About your second quote, It is ok to accept "that's just the way things work" when we have an intuitive perception of things.
Our intuition is formed from a very specific set of circumstances, and is not generally a good guide to reality outside of those circumstances. For example, Newton's first law is not intuitive at all -- in our everyday experience bodies in motion tend to stop fairly quickly. We now know that's due to friction, air resistance, etc., but the law only seems "intuitive" to you because you learned it at a young age.

Ultimately there's no getting around learning the math if you want to understand how things work.

It might be just me, but I don't like accepting things that aren't obvious/intuitive without a good explanation. That's what I'm trying to get here. A good reason of why spacetime curvature makes the apple fall.

The apple follows a "straight line" (geodesic) in curved spacetime. The curvature of the spacetime is described by Einstein's field equations, and depends on the configuration of matter and energy in the spacetime.

Just as two people who start out walking due north on Earth will eventually collide with each other, an apple and a planet moving directly "ahead" in the time direction through spacetime will eventually collide with one another, because while they start out with parallel time axes, the spacetime they are moving through is curved. GR describes exactly how it is curved.

Really, I'd suggest you switch your intuition around. The "natural" state of bodies is free fall. The apple is moving normally, it's the ground that isn't. The surface of the Earth would naturally collapse into a black hole if it were not for the forces holding it up, and we can actually feel those forces (e.g. on the soles of our feet) and measure them with accelerometers.
 
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  • #78
jbriggs444 said:
A unit distance is a unit distance. It cannot change in length, by definition. If it did change length, how would you know, other than by comparing it to something else?It has nothing to do with coordinate systems. Intrinsic curvature exists independently of coordinate systems. If you can trace three straight lines that meet in 90 degree corners, you have curvature regardless of whether you are using lines of latitude and longitude at one angle or at another.

What you could say is that he has a weird "metric". Consider, for instance, a flat map of the Earth using a Mercator projection. The distance between points on this map that you measure with your ruler on the paper will not match the correct distances that you pace out on the surface of the Earth. The shortest path line that you draw on the map with a straight-edge will not match the shortest path great circle that you would follow on the surface of the Earth.

A "metric" is a function that works pretty much like the table of distances that you can find in old maps and atlases. You find a row with your starting city on the left. You find a column with your destination city on the top. You read off the distance between those two cities from the cell where the row and column intersect.

The metric is not the same thing as a coordinate system.

A "coordinate system" for a two dimensional space is a mapping between pairs of coordinate values and points in the space. For a two dimensional space one has coordinates with two values each. For three dimensional space, one has coordinates with three values, etc.

One can think of the metric as giving the distance between a given coordinate pair e.g. between ##(x_1,y_1)## and ##(x_2,y_2)##. Or as giving a distance between the points at those coordinates. The latter choice makes the metric independent of coordinates but makes it more difficult to write down explicitly.

With that said, yes: If the metric is other than ##d=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}##, is still suitably smooth and is more than just a re-scaling then the curvature in the neighborhoods of at least some particular points will be non-zero. [I'm no expert on differential geometry, but I am pretty sure that holds]

If you change the metric and continue to identify a particular pair of points then yes, that changes the distance between those points, by definition. What is your point? And what does that have to do with confining a path to one dimension?
It’s just difficult for me to grasp how curvature in spacetime doesn’t imply curvature in all axes. Trying to work my head around that.
 
  • #79
ersmith said:
The path of an apple falling to Earth is a geodesic in the Schwarzschild solution to Einstein's field equations. In other words, GR certainly does predict that apples fall to Earth, and with the same acceleration (to within experimental error) as Newton predicted. You may not like the verbal explanations, but the math is clear.Our intuition is formed from a very specific set of circumstances, and is not generally a good guide to reality outside of those circumstances. For example, Newton's first law is not intuitive at all -- in our everyday experience bodies in motion tend to stop fairly quickly. We now know that's due to friction, air resistance, etc., but the law only seems "intuitive" to you because you learned it at a young age.

Ultimately there's no getting around learning the math if you want to understand how things work.

Newton's first law is intuitive. It's understandable at least. It is not easily perceived, though. It makes sense and you wouldn't need more than some minutes to understand that things tend to stay in motion. You could see a video of an experiment in vacuum or space and that's it. That is the "that's the way things are" that are easy to accept, because you can directly prove and experiment.
GR is making a statement that is completely unbelievable. And are proven only through math (I'm talking about gravity not being a force and the apple falls down due to spacetime curvature thing).
ersmith said:
The apple follows a "straight line" (geodesic) in curved spacetime. The curvature of the spacetime is described by Einstein's field equations, and depends on the configuration of matter and energy in the spacetime.

Just as two people who start out walking due north on Earth will eventually collide with each other, an apple and a planet moving directly "ahead" in the time direction through spacetime will eventually collide with one another, because while they start out with parallel time axes, the spacetime they are moving through is curved. GR describes exactly how it is curved.

Really, I'd suggest you switch your intuition around. The "natural" state of bodies is free fall. The apple is moving normally, it's the ground that isn't. The surface of the Earth would naturally collapse into a black hole if it were not for the forces holding it up, and we can actually feel those forces (e.g. on the soles of our feet) and measure them with accelerometers.

Ok, going by the analogy of the planet surface. We have two coordinates in a plane: x and y, being x horizontal and y vertical. If we draw a straight line parallel to y and then we curve that plane into a sphere like our planet, the line will not be straight anymore. It will be bent into the y-axis making a curved line. Like airplanes do to travel the shortest distance. But this only happens because x and y are spatialy perpendicular. Actually, because there is an angle between them.
So, can we say that time coordinate is perpendicular to the 3 spatial ones?
 
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  • #80
Grasshopper said:
It’s just difficult for me to grasp how curvature in spacetime doesn’t imply curvature in all axes. Trying to work my head around that.
An axis, being a one-dimensional object cannot have intrinsic curvature.
 
  • #81
Grasshopper said:
Edit — I guess that would make the entire thing spacetime curvature anyway, wouldn’t it?
Yes, indeed.
 
  • #82
ffp said:
Time isn't a surface. It isn't spatial. So it can't be curved.
That's right. Spacetime can be curved, but time can't.

ffp said:
They involve, but they do not prove that an apple fall on Earth because of the curvature of spacetime, right?
You have already been told multiple times now that no scientific model can be "proved". So continuing to ask about "prove" is pointless and will just get your thread closed since other members' time should not be wasted on pointless questions.

ffp said:
GR not being a fundamental theory doesn't means that the explanation of why gravity happens is wrong?
No. It just means it's an approximation.

Or, if you insist on classifying things based on "right" and "wrong", then all theories are wrong--including whatever more fundamental theory ends up having GR as an approximation to it, if that ever happens. To be "right", a scientific theory would have to be proved--and, as you have already been told multiple times, no scientific theory can be proved. So thinking of theories in terms of "right" and "wrong" is pointless. The thing to look at is how accurate the theory's predictions are, and over what range of circumstances.

ffp said:
until GR we didn't know Newtonian gravity didn't worked in some circumstances
No, that's not correct. We knew Newtonian gravity made some incorrect predictions before GR was discovered (for example, the precession of Mercury's perihelion, as actually observed, was different from what Newtonian gravity predicted). We just didn't have any better model until GR was discovered.

ffp said:
Now we know that GR doesn't work in some circumstances
No, we don't. We do not have any experiments or observations that contradict GR. The concern about GR possibly not being a fundamental theory is entirely theoretical; it is not driven by any experimental data.

ffp said:
the conceptual explanations, like why an apple fall down, are still controversial.
No, they're not. There is no controversy at all about what the GR model says, or how accurate its predictions are, or over what range of circumstances it has been tested. The only open question is whether we will some day discover some more fundamental theory of gravity to which GR is an approximation. But even if that happens, it won't change anything about how accurate GR's predictions are or over what range of circumstances those predictions work.

ffp said:
wouldn't gravitons be incompatible with GR?
If they are ever discovered (i.e., if quantum aspects of gravity are ever observed in experiments), yes, that would be an indication that GR is not a fundamental theory of gravity, since it's not a quantum theory. But that hasn't happened yet, nor is it expected to happen any time soon.
 
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  • #83
ffp said:
@Grasshopper Yes. The thing i, while spacetime is one thing, we still can differentiate traveling in space and traveling in time. In this case, the traveling in time of a still object in space is affecting the traveling in space. As if we are converting the travel in time into traveling in space because spacetime is curved. While we "know" that for change traveling in time into space a force is required.
Why should there be a force to travel through space? Or to “convert” from time to space? All you have to do to convert a time coordinate to a mix of time and space is have a uniform velocity with respect to the other observer, and that requires no force, because F = ma, not F = mv. (“Convert,” I mean it’s just a coordinate transformation)

I guess I don’t understand why there needs to be a force if the motion is a geodesic, which means it is uniform motion in which Newton’s first law holds. It is my understanding that such motion requires no force.
 
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  • #84
ffp said:
While we "know" that for change traveling in time into space a force is required.
The more general rule, that applies in Newton's and Einstein's models, is that a force is required to deviate from a geodesic path in space-time.
 
  • #85
ffp said:
Newton's first law is intuitive.
That seems a rather strong claim when we consider that the first law was only accepted a few hundred years back. Aristotlean mechanics was around for two millenia - and Aristotle was just codifying an intuition that's been taken for granted for longer than recorded history.
GR is making a statement that is completely unbelievable. And are proven only through math (I'm talking about gravity not being a force and the apple falls down due to spacetime curvature thing).
No, GR is proven through many experiments, not just math. You find it counterintuitive only because you've spent an entire lifetime in the very special and unusual conditions at the surface of a planet; if you had lived your life in freefall it would never occur to you to think of gravity as a force.
 
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  • #86
ffp said:
There is no light cone in our universe
There certainly is. Any flash of light creates an easily measurable physical light cone.

ffp said:
That's a very nice example of how you can explain something in our real world without using the math/geometry. And it's also an example of how the geometry is just a drawing that, sometimes, might help visualize or calculate things.
I completely disagree with this. I would like for you to think about and explicitly respond to the following challenge:

Do you agree that a standard table's legs are physically perpendicular to the tabletop? If so, why? Any reason that you can give to justify the geometry of the table can be extended to justify the geometry of spacetime. If you don't agree that a standard table's legs are physically perpendicular to the tabletop, then what is the physical difference between a folding table with the legs extended or folded? Geometry is part of the physical universe.

Pseudo-Riemannian geometry is not Euclidean geometry, but it is every bit as legitimate a geometry as Euclidean geometry is. And furthermore geometry in the real world as measured by real-world instruments follows the rules of pseudo-Riemannian geometry, not Euclidean geometry.

ffp said:
I was not asking if our brains were capable of understanding the theory of relativity, that is obvious. I was talking about we being able to trully comprehend and grasp what it means to live in a 4 dimensional universe
The two are the same. If you can understand the theory then you can understand "what it means to live in a 4 dimensional universe".

ffp said:
That's good to read. What I'm asking is experimental proof for the statements, which I see often when reading/watching about relativity, that gravity is not a fundamental force the way the other 3 are and that is, instead, caused by the curvature of time. I've seen this more than once.

But, I think you didn't say that. In this case, let's take a step back and I ask you: Is gravity a fundamental force like electromagnetism, and nuclear weak and strong forces? And what is the cause of gravity?
"Gravity" is a little ambiguous of a word, so let me be clear:

Gravity, meaning the whole phenomenon of gravitation and everything related to gravitation is a fundamental interaction, but it is different from the other fundamental forces in that it does not produce proper acceleration of test objects. This meaning of "gravity" is caused by stress-energy and any relevant boundary conditions, at least in globally hyperbolic spacetimes.

Gravity, meaning specifically the local force of gravity is a fictitious force that is determined by your choice of coordinates, not something physical, and this includes the curvature of time. This meaning of "gravity" has no cause.

The curvature of spacetime is something physical and that is tidal effects and their relativistic generalizations which are the only "real" (meaning frame invariant) aspect of gravity.
 
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  • #87
Grasshopper said:
I guess I don’t understand why there needs to be a force if the motion is a geodesic
There doesn't. An object whose worldline is a geodesic feels zero force.
 
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  • #88
Nugatory said:
That seems a rather strong claim when we consider that the first law was only accepted a few hundred years back. Aristotlean mechanics was around for two millenia - and Aristotle was just codifying an intuition that's been taken for granted for longer than recorded history.
[…]
There are still people who refuse to accept Galilean relativity. Met some on a YouTube video comment section that got invaded by legitimate flat earthers (lol).
 
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  • #89
PeterDonis said:
That's right. Spacetime can be curved, but time can't.

When we curve spacetime we are curving both space and time axis. While spacetime is a unique thing, we can still differentiate what is space and what is time. What does it means to bend that axis, then? Or it doesn't mean nothing and we have to only look at the plane and not the axis?

PeterDonis said:
No. It just means it's an approximation.

Or, if you insist on classifying things based on "right" and "wrong", then all theories are wrong--including whatever more fundamental theory ends up having GR as an approximation to it, if that ever happens. To be "right", a scientific theory would have to be proved--and, as you have already been told multiple times, no scientific theory can be proved. So thinking of theories in terms of "right" and "wrong" is pointless. The thing to look at is how accurate the theory's predictions are, and over what range of circumstances.

Ok, I guess all of physics is true until a new, more complete theory comes up or for some reason is proven wrong. Just as Newton's theory is now considered "wrong"*, GR might be proved wrong with the development of physics, especially quantum physics.

* You might pardon my use of the word wrong. What I mean by wrong is the consensual view of the physics community. I know we are in a GR forum section. But I think that in any physics group, relativity is considered real. And by that I mean: if someone asks you what is the source of gravity you would answer the curvature of spacetime instead the pulling force created by masses, right?

PeterDonis said:
No, we don't. We do not have any experiments or observations that contradict GR. The concern about GR possibly not being a fundamental theory is entirely theoretical; it is not driven by any experimental data.

I don't know exactly why GR is incompatible with quantum physics, that's why I asked before. But I thought it were some fundamental irreconcilable features of both. Like, if one is true the other can't be.

@Grasshopper Not to travel, to change direction or accelerate. Which is what happens when you change part of time traveling into space traveling.

Dale said:
There certainly is. Any flash of light creates an easily measurable physical light cone.

It is an abstract concept. You can't measure in reality because it is a reference for a point in time. And time is always running.

Dale said:
I completely disagree with this. I would like for you to think about and explicitly respond to the following challenge:

Do you agree that a standard table's legs are physically perpendicular to the tabletop? If so, why? Any reason that you can give to justify the geometry of the table can be extended to justify the geometry of spacetime. If you don't agree that a standard table's legs are physically perpendicular to the tabletop, then what is the physical difference between a folding table with the legs extended or folded? Geometry is part of the physical universe.

Pseudo-Riemannian geometry is not Euclidean geometry, but it is every bit as legitimate a geometry as Euclidean geometry is. And furthermore geometry in the real world as measured by real-world instruments follows the rules of pseudo-Riemannian geometry, not Euclidean geometry.

The table is physical and is inside space. I can measure its legs and the angle between them. Spacetime is not a spatial dimension. It's 3 spatial 1 time. How do you measure the angle between time and space?

Which leads me to the question I made before. The analogy of geodesics and the airplane routes. in a flat space a line is the shorter distance between 2 points. That becomes a curve when the flat space is now a spherical one. The flat and curved spaces have the same origin for both their axis and they are perpendicular. Does that means that in GR, space and time are perpendicular?

Dale said:
"Gravity" is a little ambiguous of a word, so let me be clear:

Gravity, meaning the whole phenomenon of gravitation and everything related to gravitation is a fundamental interaction, but it is different from the other fundamental forces in that it does not produce proper acceleration of test objects. This meaning of "gravity" is caused by stress-energy and any relevant boundary conditions, at least in globally hyperbolic spacetimes.

Gravity, meaning specifically the local force of gravity is a fictitious force that is determined by your choice of coordinates, not something physical, and this includes the curvature of time. This meaning of "gravity" has no cause.

The curvature of spacetime is something physical and that is tidal effects and their relativistic generalizations which are the only "real" (meaning frame invariant) aspect of gravity.

The theory of everything that lots of physics try to develop is, roughly speaking, the unification of the 4 fundamental forces. Considering GR don't treat gravity as a force, should it be unified too, or just the other 3?
From wikipedia "In physics, the fundamental interactions, also known as fundamental forces" so gravity is a fundamental force as much as electromagnetism. However it's a force caused by curvature of spacetime and that does not cause acceleration. Is that it?

EDIT: Another thought: In Newtonian gravity, the range of gravity is radial and infinite. Which means if the universe were completely emptied of masses and energy and two tennis balls would put several light-years apart, they would still be pulled together and one day they would touch. Does this applies to GR too, since in GR there is no force? Does the curvature of the tennis ball propagate light-years away to interact with the other ball?
 
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  • #90
ffp said:
It is an abstract concept. You can't measure in reality because it is a reference for a point in time. And time is always running.
Complete nonsense. This is how the GPS works, by physically measuring light cones. The intersection of four light cones identifies your spacetime event. If this geometry were purely abstract then GPS would be purely abstract too, and it isn't.

ffp said:
The table is physical and is inside space. I can measure its legs and the angle between them.
I can also measure the relative velocity (or rapidity) between two objects. This is the spacetime angle between them. This angle can be measured just like a spatial angle, so if the spatial angle is physical by virtue of being measurable, then so is the spacetime angle.

ffp said:
How do you measure the angle between time and space?
The easiest way is with a radar gun, but many other alternative devices exist. E.g. anemometers, speedometers, etc. Notice that we are not measuring the angle between time and space any more than you measure the angle between space and space for the table. For the table you are measuring the spatial angle between the tabletop and the leg. With a speedometer you are measuring the spacetime angle between your car and the road. These spacetime angles are every bit as physical and measurable as spatial angles.

ffp said:
That becomes a curve when the flat space is now a spherical one. The flat and curved spaces have the same origin for both their axis
This doesn't make any sense that I can see. A flat space cannot become a spherical space and I cannot even fathom in what sense you would say that they share an origin. They don't even naturally have origins to begin with.

ffp said:
Considering GR don't treat gravity as a force, should it be unified too, or just the other 3?
I think that is an open question at the moment.
 
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  • #91
ffp said:
GR is making a statement that is completely unbelievable. And are proven only through math (I'm talking about gravity not being a force and the apple falls down due to spacetime curvature thing).
Wow, I think we need to step back here. "GR" says only two things, which boil down to:

(1) Objects move along geodesics in spacetime ("geodesic" is the generalization of a straight line that applies to any space, even one with intrinsic curvature). This is often summarized as "Spacetime tells matter how to move".
(2) Spacetime is curved, and the curvature is determined by the configuration of energy in that spacetime (including momentum, stress, and pressure). ("Matter tells spacetime how to curve")

These aren't terribly difficult or even unintuitive statements, and millions of people have no trouble believing them. The hard part is seeing how these statements imply that apples fall, planets orbit the sun, and so forth. But that's just a matter of grinding through the math. There are "pop science" attempts to bypass the math and explain how our ordinary experiences of gravity follow from the assumptions. You certainly may find those pop science explanations unconvincing, and that's fair. But the conclusions drawn from the two postulates are not a matter of "belief", they're a matter of mathematics.

Consider flat spacetime (in deep space, away from any large masses). A moving object not subject to any forces traces a straight line in such a spacetime. So the path taken (in both space *and* time) by an inertial object is a "straight" line. This includes a "stationary" object, for which the straight line in spacetime happens to coincide with our choice of time axis. The angle between the various lines taken through spacetime by objects is a function of the relative velocities of those objects.

What's a curved line in spacetime? At each point of such a line there's a straight tangent line. Each tangent line corresponds to a particular velocity. "Curved" means the tangent lines are changing, i.e. the velocity is changing. So a curved line in spacetime corresponds to an accelerating object. This may be linear acceleration (e.g. an object falling straight towards a planet) or centripetal acceleration (e.g. an object in orbit) or both.

So saying "matter curves spacetime" is not too different from saying "matter makes things accelerate", which is a fairly uncontroversial statement. The details of how matter curves spacetime (and thus how things accelerate) are found in Einstein's field equations, and reduce to Newton's equations in the weak field limit (when there isn't very much matter, or it's far away).
 
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  • #92
ffp said:
@Grasshopper Not to travel, to change direction or accelerate. Which is what happens when you change part of time traveling into space traveling.
How are you changing direction if you remain on the same geodesic? Are they not the straightest possible paths in spacetime?

Changing part of time into space traveling, as I understand it, is due to your arbitrarily chosen coordinates. In special relativity this happens simply by virtue of have a relative speed between the observers, and requires no force. E.g.,
## t’ = \frac{t - \frac{vx}{c^2}}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}}##EDIT — If you mean what someone not next to you sees, if I understand it, reference frames are strictly local in curved spacetime, and you’d have to have some parallel transport convention (I am not familiar with this topic).
 
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  • #93
ffp said:
GR is making a statement that is completely unbelievable. And are proven only through math (I'm talking about gravity not being a force and the apple falls down due to spacetime curvature thing).
This is completely backwards. GR's statement that gravity is not a force is proven experimentally with accelerometers. As you stand on the Earth an accelerometer directly measures that you are accelerating upward and as you free fall an accelerometer directly measures that you are not accelerating.

In contrast it is the traditional Newtonian gravitational treatment that is “proven only through math”. The Newtonian gravitational force cannot be experimentally measured, but only mathematically reconstructed by asserting a specific mathematical reference frame and inferring the force from the motion in that frame.

The equivalence principle comes from taking experimental measurements seriously and not pretending that the math is more “real” than the physical measurements. You have this complaint 100% exactly backwards.
 
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  • #94
ffp said:
When we curve spacetime we are curving both space and time axis.
No. This makes no sense; an axis can't be curved. You have already been told this, repeatedly.
 
  • #95
ffp said:
I guess all of physics is true until a new, more complete theory comes up or for some reason is proven wrong.
You aren't paying attention. I never said theories are true. I said they are models that make predictions, and we test the modelsby comparing their predictions with experiments.

You need to stop responding to things nobody has said, and start paying attention to what we are actually saying.
 
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  • #96
Since the OP is taking a vacation, this thread is closed.
 
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<h2>1. How does traveling at high speeds affect time?</h2><p>According to Einstein's theory of relativity, time appears to pass slower for an object traveling at high speeds compared to an object at rest. This phenomenon is known as time dilation and is due to the curvature of spacetime caused by the object's velocity.</p><h2>2. Can gravity affect the passage of time?</h2><p>Yes, gravity can affect the passage of time. According to Einstein's theory of general relativity, gravity is a result of the curvature of spacetime caused by massive objects. This curvature can also affect the flow of time, causing it to pass slower near massive objects.</p><h2>3. How does gravity affect the speed of an object?</h2><p>Gravity is a force that acts on objects, causing them to accelerate towards each other. The strength of gravity between two objects depends on their masses and the distance between them. The greater the mass and the closer the distance, the stronger the gravitational force, and the faster the objects will accelerate towards each other.</p><h2>4. Can time travel be achieved through gravity?</h2><p>There is currently no scientific evidence to suggest that time travel is possible through gravity. While gravity can affect the passage of time, it is not yet understood how it could be harnessed to travel through time. The concept of time travel is still a topic of theoretical exploration and remains in the realm of science fiction.</p><h2>5. Is it possible to travel faster than the speed of light?</h2><p>According to Einstein's theory of relativity, it is not possible for any object to travel faster than the speed of light. As an object approaches the speed of light, its mass increases, and it would require an infinite amount of energy to reach the speed of light. This is known as the cosmic speed limit and is a fundamental principle in our understanding of the universe.</p>

1. How does traveling at high speeds affect time?

According to Einstein's theory of relativity, time appears to pass slower for an object traveling at high speeds compared to an object at rest. This phenomenon is known as time dilation and is due to the curvature of spacetime caused by the object's velocity.

2. Can gravity affect the passage of time?

Yes, gravity can affect the passage of time. According to Einstein's theory of general relativity, gravity is a result of the curvature of spacetime caused by massive objects. This curvature can also affect the flow of time, causing it to pass slower near massive objects.

3. How does gravity affect the speed of an object?

Gravity is a force that acts on objects, causing them to accelerate towards each other. The strength of gravity between two objects depends on their masses and the distance between them. The greater the mass and the closer the distance, the stronger the gravitational force, and the faster the objects will accelerate towards each other.

4. Can time travel be achieved through gravity?

There is currently no scientific evidence to suggest that time travel is possible through gravity. While gravity can affect the passage of time, it is not yet understood how it could be harnessed to travel through time. The concept of time travel is still a topic of theoretical exploration and remains in the realm of science fiction.

5. Is it possible to travel faster than the speed of light?

According to Einstein's theory of relativity, it is not possible for any object to travel faster than the speed of light. As an object approaches the speed of light, its mass increases, and it would require an infinite amount of energy to reach the speed of light. This is known as the cosmic speed limit and is a fundamental principle in our understanding of the universe.

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