- #1
rootX
- 479
- 4
If derivative of 1/ln(x), which is -1/(x*ln(x)^2), converges
why then 1/ln(x) does not converge?
According to some theorem that I learned, differentiating does not change the radius of convergence and hence neither its convergence or divergence.
Thanks.
why then 1/ln(x) does not converge?
According to some theorem that I learned, differentiating does not change the radius of convergence and hence neither its convergence or divergence.
Thanks.