Real analysis:limit superior problem

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Homework Statement


Let c>1 and let [itex]c_{n}=\sqrt[n]{c}-1[/itex]
Show that [itex]c_{n} \geq 0[/itex] and that
[itex]\stackrel{limsup}{_{n \rightarrow \infty}}c_{n} \leq 0[/itex] by using Bernoullis inequality

(This problem actually occurs in a section on power series and there are more questions that follow from this one)

Homework Equations


[itex](1+x)^{n} \geq 1+nx \forall x\geq -1[/itex]



The Attempt at a Solution


I could do the first part, but I'm really at a loss for the second part, even with the bernoullis inequality hint.
I mean I have a fairly good understanding of limit superior so I don't even see how the result they get is even possible. In my head the limsup here is the same as the limit, and that should be greater than 0 anyway.

Either way, can you see a way to write [itex]\sqrt[n]{c}-1[/itex] so that I can use bernoullis inequality? All I can think of is pulling out -1, and that doesn't achieve much.

Any help on any of the above issues would be appreciated
 
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Hi K29! :smile:

The thing you write down, i.e. [itex]c_n\geq 0[/itex] and [itex]\limsup{c_n}\leq 0[/itex] is of course only possible if the limsup equals zero! So what the question actually asks you to prove is that [itex]\limsup{c_n}=0[/itex].

Now, what if you apply Bernouilli's inequality to [itex]x=\sqrt[n]{c}-1[/itex]?
 
You know that [itex]c_{n}=c^{\frac{1}{n}}-1[/itex] The a little re-arrangement shows that [itex]c=(1+c_{n})^{n}[/itex], this is now in a good position to use Bernoullie inequality.
 
Thanks Micromass for helping me understand what my goal was. (It did seem rather impossible for the limsup to be <0 and that threw me off.)
And thanks hunt_mat, that bernoulli idea helped me solve the problem and get the limsup(c_n)=0