Hello,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

it is possible to prove that the Mellin transform of a functionf(x)can be expressed in terms of Fourier transform, namely:

[tex]\mathcal{M}\{f(x)\}(s) = \mathcal{F}\{f(e^{-x}\}(-is)[/tex]

I am not convinced of that imaginary unitias argument of the Fourier transform. In fact, since the argument (-is) is imaginary, that is not a Fourier transform anymore.

I don't see I could compute a Mellin transform using a Fourier transform. Am I missing something?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Relationship between Fourier and Mellin transforms

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**