Resultant Force Acting On Springs : Confused

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the resultant force acting on springs connected to two insulated metal rods, each carrying a current of 20A in opposing directions. The force acting on each rod was calculated to be 0.0036 N, leading to confusion regarding whether the resultant force on each spring should be considered as 0.0012 N or 0.0024 N. The consensus is that the resultant force acting on each spring is equal to the force from one rod, which is 0.0036 N, as the spring's extension counteracts the force from one rod only, not both.

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  • Understanding of electromagnetic force (F = BIL)
  • Knowledge of spring mechanics (Hooke's Law)
  • Familiarity with current flow in conductors
  • Basic principles of equilibrium in physics
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Homework Statement


Suppose we have 2 insulated metal rods each measuring 40 cm. Now,the 2 metal rods are connected with 3 identical springs each of length 20 cm (force constant 2.0 N/m) in parallel. A current of 20A is passed through each metal rod in opposing directions. What is the extension of each spring? The springs are initially not stretched.




Homework Equations


F=BIL

B= {\mu x I}/{2\pir}


The Attempt at a Solution


I calculated the force acting on each metal rod to be 0.0036 N. The 2 metal rods repel each other since the current flowing through them is in opposite directions.

Now, my question is what is the resultant force acting on each spring? Is it 0.0012N or 0.0012 x 2 = 0.0024 N since there are 2 forces acting on each spring ; pulling each spring from the 2 ends ?

Thanks for your help!
 
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see this similar post: https://www.physicsforums.com/archive/index.php/t-85739.html

It will actually just be 1xForce, look at it from the perspective of one of the rods. The rod is being pushed away by F Newtons, so, for equilibrium the spring must be pulling back with -F Newtons, and that -F comes from the extension of the spring... so the spring must be only extended by F, not 2xF. Thats pretty confusing, but does it make sense?
 
zhermes said:
see this similar post: https://www.physicsforums.com/archive/index.php/t-85739.html

It will actually just be 1xForce, look at it from the perspective of one of the rods. The rod is being pushed away by F Newtons, so, for equilibrium the spring must be pulling back with -F Newtons, and that -F comes from the extension of the spring... so the spring must be only extended by F, not 2xF. Thats pretty confusing, but does it make sense?

Actually it makes a lot of sense. Thanks for pointing this out to me. :smile:
 

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