Rewrite Lagrangian's equation of motion as a 1st order difeq

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves deriving a first order differential equation for the motion of a hoop that moves within a larger fixed hoop. The original poster has already formulated the Lagrangian equations of motion as a second order differential equation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to express the second order equation in terms of a first order differential equation, while also considering the conservation of angular momentum. Some participants question the clarity of the variables and the assumptions made regarding the system, particularly the definition of the radius and the nature of the equations of motion.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants seeking clarification on the variables involved and the physical setup of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the implications of the equations of motion, but there is no explicit consensus on the correctness of the original poster's approach.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted lack of clarity regarding the definitions of certain variables, such as the radius 'k' and the angular variable for the small loop. Participants are also questioning the assumptions made about the motion and constraints in the system.

noon0788
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I'm most of the way through this problem. I've already found the lagrangian equations of motion as a second order differential equation. I'm just stuck at the end...

Homework Statement



Derive a first order differential equation for the motion of a hoop in a bigger hoop.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



I found the equation of motion to be:

0=g Sin(θ) + 3/2*R*Doubledot[θ]

I think a conserved quantity is angular momentum = 3/2*m*k2*Dot[θ]

How do I write θ as a first order difeq?
 
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You don't state all your variables clearly and it is difficult for me to figure out what system you are solving for.

If you are correct and\frac{3}{2} m k^2 \dot{\theta} is indeed a COM (I don't know what k is since you did not state in your original question and I am going to assume that it does not vary with time), then: \ddot{\theta} = 0, which would reduce the EOM to just 0 = g \sin\theta.
 
Sorry, here's some clarification:

Basically, it's a hoop that's allowed to move in a larger fixed hoop without slipping.

k is the radius between the center of the free hoop and the bigger hoop that it's in. It does not vary with time.

If the EOM is 0=gsinθ, isn't that just trivial?
 
noon0788 said:
Sorry, here's some clarification:

Basically, it's a hoop that's allowed to move in a larger fixed hoop without slipping.

k is the radius between the center of the free hoop and the bigger hoop that it's in. It does not vary with time.
There is no such thing as the radius between two things? You mean the distance between the center of the two loops? And I suppose your \theta is the angle of the line that connects the two centers makes with the vertical? How did you eliminate the angular variable for the small loop? How did you apply the equation of constrain (which I think is what this problem is all about)? Why don't you start from the beginning and show us what you have done.

If the EOM is 0=gsinθ, isn't that just trivial?
That is why I think you are wrong.
 

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