Rewriting cos function as sine function

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The discussion centers on rewriting the cosine function in an AC circuit equation as a sine function. The user attempts to manipulate the identity of cosine but struggles with the equivalence of different sine expressions. They question the validity of using specific trigonometric identities and whether their transformations are correct. The conversation highlights confusion over the relationships between sine and cosine functions, particularly when phase shifts are involved. Ultimately, the user seeks clarification on why certain identities work while others do not.
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Homework Statement


So in an AC circuit with inductance, I found

I = (-ε_{max} cos(ωt)) / ωL

I want to rewrite this as a sine function.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



I can ignore ε_{max} / ωL and work with -cos(ωt)

I set ωt = θ

I know cos(θ) = sin(θ+pi/2)

so -cosθ = -sin(θ+pi/2)

-sinθ = sin(-θ)

so shouldnt

-sin(θ+pi/2) = sin (-θ-pi/2) ?

but my book rewrote cos(ωt) as sin(ωt - pi/2)

How can you write -θ-pi/2 as θ-pi/2?

My hunch is telling me the step

-cosθ = -sin(θ+pi/2)
-cosθ = sin(-θ-pi/2)

is where I made my mistake but I don't understand why.
 
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Is it perhaps I used the wrong identity to start with?

instead of using
cos(θ) = sin(θ+pi/2)

If I use sin(pi/2 - θ) = cosθ

then sin(- (-pi/2 + θ) ) = cosθ

then -sin(-pi/2 + θ) = cosθ

then sin(-pi/2 + θ) = -cosθ

does this method seem correct?

It seems logical to me now, but I'm still having doubts. Why would one identity work and the other wouldn't? Makes no sense to me.
 
Basically I think my question boils down to:

why are sin(x - pi/2), sin(-x -pi/2) and -sin(x+pi/2) all equal to each other?

if -sin(x) = sin(-x) wouldn't that imply -sin(x+pi/2) and sin(-x -pi/2) are equal to each other, but not sin(x - pi/2)?
 
Rijad Hadzic said:
if -sin(x) = sin(-x) wouldn't that imply -sin(x+pi/2) and sin(-x -pi/2) are equal to each other, but not sin(x - pi/2)?
Yes. You can verify it using sin(A±B)=sinAcosB±cosAsinB.

(And, this question belongs to the math homework section).
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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