Rigorously Evaluating the Limit of $\tmop{te}^{- t}$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around rigorously evaluating the limit of the function \( \tmop{te}^{-t} \) as \( t \) approaches infinity. Participants explore various methods and approaches to establish this limit, including series expansion and L'Hôpital's rule.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that the limit is clearly zero and suggests using a Maclaurin series to evaluate it, questioning the validity of this approach as \( t \) approaches infinity.
  • Another participant proposes using L'Hôpital's rule as a method to evaluate the limit, indicating a simpler approach.
  • A further contribution emphasizes a direct proof by comparing \( e^x \) and \( x \), arguing that since \( e^x \) grows faster than \( x \), the limit of \( xe^{-x} \) approaches zero as \( x \) approaches infinity.
  • There is a light-hearted exchange regarding the terminology used to refer to participants in the thread, with suggestions for creative naming conventions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the limit approaching zero, but there are differing opinions on the methods to rigorously evaluate it, with no consensus on the best approach.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the convergence of the Maclaurin series for \( te^{-t} \) as \( t \) approaches infinity, and there are unresolved discussions about the appropriateness of various mathematical techniques.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for those interested in advanced calculus, limit evaluation techniques, and mathematical proofs involving exponential functions.

Nick R
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Hello, it is pretty obvious that the following limit is equal to zero:

[tex]$Lim t \rightarrow \infty (\tmop{te}^{- t}) = 0$[/tex]

For example, for t=100 it is [tex]100*e^{-100}[/tex]

But how would you take this limit "rigorously"? I tried decomposing the function with a mclaurin series and [tex]te^-t[/tex] is equal to this series:

[tex]$\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{(- 1)^{n + 1} t^n}{(n - 1) !}$[/tex]

How would I actually evaluate this series for t->infinity? Or is this the wrong approach?

Also for a finite number of terms it appears that this series diverges...
 
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Errrr... L'hopital's rule. Sorry should have spent a while longer thinking about it before posting.
 
Write it as [itex]t/e^t[/itex] and use L'Hopital's rule as Nick R suggested.
 
Nick R = TS ;)

A more direct proof: since [itex]e^x = 1 + x + x^2+ ...[/itex], it is obvious that [itex]e^x>x[/itex] for all [tex]x\in\mathbb{R}[/tex]. In other words, [itex]\frac{e^x}{x}>1[/itex]. Hence

[tex]\frac{e^x}{x}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{e^{x/2}}{x/2}\right)e^{x/2}>\frac{1}{2}e^{x/2}\to\infty[/tex] if [itex]x\to\infty[/itex].

It follows that [itex]xe^{-x}=\frac{x}{e^x}\to 0[/itex] if [itex]x\to\infty[/itex].
 
Ts = op?
 
I'm sorry, with TS I meant Topic (/Thread) Starter. Is OP (original poster?) more standard?
 
We are mathematicians. We can call it whatever we want! But it is mandatory to use at least two of these:
1) greek letter(s)
2) subscript
3) AlTeRnAtInG CaPs

I recommend that we define [tex]\tau\sigma_{1}(399107)[/tex]:= {"Nick R"}
 
The Chaz said:
We are mathematicians. We can call it whatever we want! But it is mandatory to use at least two of these:
1) greek letter(s)
2) subscript
3) AlTeRnAtInG CaPs

I recommend that we define [tex]\tau\sigma_{1}(399107)[/tex]:= {"Nick R"}

Hahaha that's a good one :smile:
 

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