RMS of Fullwave rectified sine wave.

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the RMS value of a fullwave rectified sine wave, specifically focusing on the mathematical approach to evaluating the integral involved in the calculation.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to evaluate the RMS using the integral of the sine function squared over the interval from 0 to π. Some participants question the steps taken in the integration process, particularly regarding the application of the double angle identity and the evaluation of the integral limits.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering insights into the integration process and questioning the original poster's calculations. There is a recognition of the use of trigonometric identities and integral properties, but no consensus has been reached on the correct approach or final value.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses uncertainty about their calculations and the use of LaTeX, indicating a potential barrier to clear communication of their reasoning. The discussion is framed within the constraints of a homework assignment, which may limit the depth of exploration.

pooface
Messages
207
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Determine the RMS value of fullwave rectified sine wave.

Homework Equations


RMS = \sqrt{({1}/{b-a})\int^{b}_{a}[(fx)]^{2}dx}

The Attempt at a Solution



Notes: The Period of a full wave rectified sine wave is pi.

a=0
b=pi

Let's do square root at the end.

=1/pi \int^{pi}_{0}sin^{2}xdx

=1/pi [pi/2 - [sin(2pi)]/4] - 1/pi [pi/2 - [sin(2pi)]/4]

=1/2 - 1/2 ? ? ? ? ? ?

Where am i going wrong? Sorry I am not good with latex code, even with the reference.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
So you used the double angle identity.

sin^2(x) =\frac{1}{2}(1-cos(2x))

\int_0^{\pi} \frac{1}{2}(1-cos(2x)) = \frac{\pi}{2} - \left[sin(2x)/4 \right]^{x=\pi}_{x=0}

\int_0^{\pi} \frac{1}{2}(1-cos(2x)) = \frac{\pi}{2}-(0)

I'm not sure what you were doing.
 
I used integral of sin^2(u) du is = u/2 - [sin(2u)]/4 + C

When i sub pi in the term sin2u , then this becomes sin2pi which is 0.
 
Right so you have

\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi}\frac{\pi}{2}}

RMS = 1/√2
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
12
Views
7K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K