How Does Fourier Analysis Reveal the Series Expansion of Coth(pi)?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on demonstrating the identity coth(π) = 1/π (1 + 2 ∑(1/(1+n²)) from the Fourier series expansion of e^x. Participants clarify the correct Fourier expansion, which is sinh(π)/π(1 + ∑(2(-1)ⁿ/(1+n²)(cos(nx) - n sin(nx))). The main issue highlighted is the incorrect substitution and handling of terms in the Fourier series, particularly regarding the presence of sinh(π) and the need to maintain the leading term. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly aligning indices and understanding the convergence of the series at x = π.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier series and their convergence properties
  • Familiarity with hyperbolic functions, specifically sinh and coth
  • Knowledge of series notation and summation techniques
  • Basic algebraic manipulation skills for handling complex equations
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  • Study the derivation of the Fourier series expansion of e^x
  • Learn about the properties and applications of hyperbolic functions
  • Explore convergence criteria for Fourier series
  • Investigate the relationship between Fourier series and complex analysis
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying analysis or differential equations, as well as educators seeking to clarify concepts related to Fourier series and hyperbolic functions.

Ratpigeon
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Homework Statement



show coth(\pi)=1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

Homework Equations


The Fourier expansion of e^x is
Sinh(\pi)/\pi(1+\sum 2(-1)^m/(1+n^2) (cos(mx)-n sin(nx)


The Attempt at a Solution


I subbed in
Coth(Pi)=1+e^-pi/sinh(pi) =1+1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

But this is wrong because of the one out the front - I know that needs to stay there, which means I somehow need to stick a -sinh(pi) into the front of my Fourier series of e^pi I would say that it would be my term for n= zero, but I already took care of that one, which was sinh(pi)/pi...
Please help - I've spent about fifteen pages on the algebra for this and I'm getting really sick of the stupid question...
 
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Ratpigeon said:

Homework Statement



show coth(\pi)=1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

Homework Equations


The Fourier expansion of e^x is
Sinh(\pi)/\pi(1+\sum 2(-1)^m/(1+n^2) (cos(mx)-n sin(nx)
You're missing closing parentheses and have two index variables, m and n, so I'm not sure what you meant to write exactly. Did you mean
$$\frac{\sinh \pi}{\pi}\left(1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{2(-1)^n}{1+n^2}(\cos nx - n\sin nx)\right)?$$

The Attempt at a Solution


I subbed in
Coth(Pi)=1+e^-pi/sinh(pi) =1+1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

But this is wrong because of the one out the front - I know that needs to stay there, which means I somehow need to stick a -sinh(pi) into the front of my Fourier series of e^pi I would say that it would be my term for n= zero, but I already took care of that one, which was sinh(pi)/pi...
Please help - I've spent about fifteen pages on the algebra for this and I'm getting really sick of the stupid question...
How'd you come up with ##\coth \pi = 1+\frac{e^{-\pi}}{\sinh \pi}##?
 
Last edited:
Coth(\pi) =(e\pi+e-\pi)/(e\pi-e-\pi)

which equals
1+2e-\pi/(e\pi-e-\pi)
which equals
1+2e^pi/2sinh(pi)
 
Ratpigeon said:
The Fourier expansion of e^x is
Sinh(\pi)/\pi(1+\sum 2(-1)^m/(1+n^2) (cos(mx)-n sin(nx)

As vela pointed out, this makes no sense. What is the actual Fourier series expansion of e^x?
 
Last edited:
It's the one that vela used - I usually use n's but the lecturer uses m's so it's a bit messed up, and they are both standing for the same thing. And the e^pi is a typo - I have it right in my working...
I've found another page that uses this as the Fourier expansion of e^x, so I'm fairly sure that it's right (after making all the indeces the same)
 
Hint: What does your Fourier series converge to when you set ##x=\pi##? Keep in mind there's a discontinuity there.
 
It'll be... halfway between the limit of the Fourier series at Pi and -pi?
Which means...
1/2(e^pi+e^-pi)=Sn(+/-pi)?
 
I don't know what you mean by "Sn(+/-pi)", but yeah, it'll be the average.
 
And that let's me calculate e^pi+e^-pi from my Fourier series at Pi; but how do I get e^pi-e^-pi for the denominator then?
 
  • #10
Here's another hint: What's ##\cosh \pi## equal to?
 
  • #11
wait, no, I got it. The denominator is 2 sinh(pi) and the numerator is twice the Fourier series at Pi - which is sinH(pi) multiplied by the series I want.
Thanks!
:)
 

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